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A nurse is assessing a client following the administration of ondansetron (Zofran). Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the ondansetron has been effective?
- A. Client reports a decrease in pain
- B. Client reports a decrease in nausea
- C. Client reports a decrease in coughing
- D. Client reports a decrease in diarrhea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client reports a decrease in nausea. Ondansetron is primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. If the client reports a decrease in nausea, it indicates that the medication has been effective in managing this specific symptom. Decrease in pain (choice A) is not directly related to the action of ondansetron. Choices C (decrease in coughing) and D (decrease in diarrhea) are not typical indications of ondansetron's effectiveness. It is important for the nurse to focus on the specific expected outcome of the medication, which is the reduction of nausea and vomiting.
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A nurse Is evaluating the laboratory results of four clents. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds (30-40 seconds).
- B. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds (30-40 seconds).
- C. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 (0.8 to 1.1).
- D. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 (0.8 to 1.1).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client with a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds indicates that the client's blood is taking too long to clot, which puts the client at risk for bleeding. The aPTT range for a client on heparin therapy is 30-40 seconds, so a result of 90 seconds is significantly elevated and requires immediate attention to prevent bleeding complications.
Summary of other choices:
B: A client with a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds falls within the normal range of 30-40 seconds, so this result does not require immediate reporting.
C: A client with a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 is within the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy, so this result does not require immediate reporting.
D: A client with a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 is also
A nurse is caring for a client who has a respiratory infection and is receiving an antibiotic. Which of the following medications puts the client at risk for developing hearing loss?
- A. Rifampin
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Penicillin G
- D. Gentamicin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gentamicin. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, leading to hearing loss. The medication affects the inner ear's hair cells, resulting in irreversible damage. Rifampin (A), Ciprofloxacin (B), and Penicillin G (C) are not associated with ototoxicity. In summary, Gentamicin (D) is the only medication in the choices that poses a risk for hearing loss due to its ototoxic effects on the inner ear.
A nurse is teaching a client about oral contraceptive. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Abdominal pain is an expected adverse effect of oral contraceptives
- B. It can take up to 1 year to become pregnant after stopping an oral contraceptive
- C. Some herbal supplements can decrease the effectiveness of an oral contraceptive
- D. A pelvic examination is needed prior to starting an oral contraceptive
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Some herbal supplements can decrease the effectiveness of an oral contraceptive. The nurse should include this information in the teaching to ensure the client understands potential interactions. Herbal supplements like St. John's Wort can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by increasing their metabolism. This can lead to contraceptive failure and unintended pregnancy. Option A is incorrect because abdominal pain is not an expected adverse effect of oral contraceptives. Option B is incorrect as fertility typically returns quickly after stopping oral contraceptives, not taking up to a year. Option D is incorrect as a pelvic examination is not always necessary before starting oral contraceptives.
A nurse is preparing to administer 4,000 units of heparin subcutaneously to a client who has deep-vein thrombosis. Available is heparin 10,000 units/mL. How many mL of heparin should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
Correct Answer: 0.4
Rationale: To calculate the mL of heparin to administer, use the formula: desired dose (4,000 units) ÷ concentration (10,000 units/mL) = X mL. 4,000 ÷ 10,000 = 0.4 mL. The correct answer is 0.4 mL because it accurately represents the calculated dose needed for the client. Other choices are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the administration of omeprazole. Which of the following should the nurse include?
- A. You cannot take this medication with an antacid.
- B. You should reduce your intake of calcium while taking this medication.
- C. You should take this medication before meals.
- D. You can take a second dose if symptoms persist up to 2 hours after the first dose.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken before meals to inhibit gastric acid secretion. This timing ensures optimal effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because omeprazole can be taken with antacids, but it is recommended to be taken separately. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to reduce calcium intake while taking omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect as taking a second dose without medical advice may lead to overdosing and adverse effects.