Nokea
The new nurse asks the experienced nurse why the first dose of the MMR vaccine is normally given at 12 to 15 months of age and not earlier, except with international travel. Which explanation by the experienced nurse is correct?
- A. Giving the first dose of the vaccine at 12 to 15 months of age allows the correct interval before the next booster at age 12 years.
- B. A live virus is being given; the chance of measles, mumps, or rubella developing is much higher if given at an earlier age.
- C. A first dose at this age provides passive immunity and decreases the incidence of a child developing any of the diseases.
- D. If given earlier, the vaccine may neutralize the passive immunity to measles from the child's mother and no immunity may result.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: The second dose of the MMR vaccine can be given earlier, provided that at least 4 weeks has elapsed since the first dose. However, a second dose is usually not given earlier because sufficient immunity is usually present. B: The chance of developing only measles is greater if the vaccine is given at a younger age because the vaccine may neutralize the passive antibodies. C: The MMR provides active (not passive) immunity. D: Because the MMR vaccine is a live virus, a person develops a mild form of the diseases after administration, stimulating the body to develop immunity. The passively acquired antibodies to measles can interfere with the child's immune response to the vaccine, and no immunity may result.
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The nurse is providing instructions to the client taking alprazolam. Which substances should the client be instructed to avoid? Select all that apply.
- A. Alcohol
- B. Caffeine
- C. Narcotics
- D. Antioxidants
- E. Antihistamines
- F. Antidepressants
Correct Answer: A,C,E,F
Rationale: Alcohol, narcotics, antihistamines, and antidepressants can increase CNS side effects when taken with alprazolam (Xanax).
The nurse receives the HCP order to start TPN for the client who has a PICC. Into which type of catheter illustrated should the nurse plan to administer the TPN?
- A. TPN_1.PNG
- B. TPN_2.PNG
- C. TPN_3.PNG
- D. TPN_4.PNG
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Illustration A is a central line that is percutaneously inserted into the jugular or subclavian vein and terminates in the central circulation. These are intended for short-term venous access. B: Illustration B is a PICC, which is inserted into the arm and terminates in the central circulation. A PICC is used when medications or solutions are too caustic to be peripherally administered or when therapy lasts more than 2 weeks. C: Illustration C is a tunneled catheter inserted into the upper chest wall and threaded through the cephalic vein; it terminates in the central circulation. D: Illustration D is an intra-aortic balloon pump catheter that is inserted into the femoral artery and positioned in the descending aortic arch. The balloon on the end inflates during diastole. It is not used for medication or fluid administration.
A nurse working a surgical unit, notices a patient is experiencing SOB, calf pain, and warmth over the posterior calf. All of these may indicate which of the following medical conditions?
- A. Patient may have a DVT.
- B. Patient may be exhibiting signs of dermatitis.
- C. Patient may be in the late phases of CHF.
- D. Patient may be experiencing anxiety after surgery.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: All of these factors (SOB, calf pain, and warmth) indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can be a postoperative complication.
The nurse is reviewing information for the 6-month-old who is being given ranitidine. Which finding should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of ranitidine?
- A. A heart rate of 110 bpm
- B. Oral temperature of 102.7°F (39.3°C)
- C. Spitting up some formula after each feeding
- D. A hard, pebble-like bowel movement every 2 days
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: An HR of 110 bpm is normal for a 6-month-old; the range is 80-170 bpm. B: Fever (temperature of 102.7°F) is not an adverse effect of ranitidine. C: Ranitidine is indicated for GERD; spitting up after feedings should improve. If not, then the medication dose may be too low or the medication itself ineffective. Spitting up is not a side effect. D: The nurse should identify that a hard, pebble-like bowel movement every 2 days demonstrates constipation; constipation is an adverse effect of ranitidine (Zantac).
Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?
- A. Transfuse netrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection.
- B. Exclude raw vegetables from the diet.
- C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories.
- D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client's room.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Granulocyte transfusion is not indicated to prevent infection. Produced in the bone marrow, granulocytes normally comprise 70% of all WBCs. They are subdivided into three types based on staining properties: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. They can be beneficial in a selected population of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients (less than 500/mm3) who do not respond to antibiotic therapy and who are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production.