The normal range of hemoglobin in the blood of an adult:
- A. 7-11 mg
- B. 14-20 mg
- C. 12-18 mg
- D. 20-26 mg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The normal range of hemoglobin in adult blood is typically between 12-18 g/dL. This range is the most common and widely accepted range based on clinical guidelines and research studies. Hemoglobin levels outside this range may indicate anemia or other health conditions. Choice A (7-11 mg) is too low for normal hemoglobin levels in adults and indicates severe anemia. Choice B (14-20 mg) is slightly higher and could be normal for some individuals, but generally, 12-18 g/dL is the standard range. Choice D (20-26 mg) is too high and may indicate dehydration or other medical conditions.
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A 90 y.o. nursing home resident with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease is found alone and crying in the dining room. She says she lost her mother and doesn’t know what to do. Which response by the nurse will help calm the resident?
- A. “Remember your mother has been dead for 30 years. You forgot again, didn’t you?”
- B. “I’m sorry you lost your mother; let’s go and try to find her.”
- C. “Are you feeling frightened? I’m here and I will help you.”
- D. “You are 90 years old. It is impossible for your mother to still be living. I know if you try, you can figure out what to do.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Are you feeling frightened? I’m here and I will help you.” This response acknowledges the resident’s feelings, offers reassurance, and provides support, focusing on the resident's emotional needs rather than the accuracy of her statements. It shows empathy and validation of her feelings, which can help calm the resident and build trust.
Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses the resident's feelings and reality, which can lead to increased distress and confusion. Choice B is incorrect as it doesn't address the resident's emotional state or offer immediate support. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on correcting the resident's perception rather than providing emotional support, which may lead to further distress.
The nurse practitioner assesses a client in the physician’s office. Which assessment findings support a suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
- A. Facial erythema, profuse proteinuria, pleuritis, fever, and weight loss
- B. Pericarditis, photosensitivity, polyarthralgia, and painful mucous membrane ulcers
- C. Weight gain, hypervigilance, hypothermia, and edema of the legs
- D. Hypothermia, weight gain, lethargy, and edema of the arms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the assessment findings of pericarditis, photosensitivity, polyarthralgia, and painful mucous membrane ulcers are classic manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Pericarditis can present as chest pain aggravated by deep breathing or lying flat, photosensitivity refers to skin rashes triggered by sunlight exposure, polyarthralgia involves joint pain in multiple joints, and painful mucous membrane ulcers are common in the mouth or nose. These findings align with the diagnostic criteria for SLE.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical presentation of SLE. Choice A includes facial erythema which is a common symptom, but the presence of profuse proteinuria, pleuritis, fever, and weight loss are not specific to SLE. Choices C and D include symptoms like weight gain, hypothermia, and edema which are not characteristic of SLE.
In summary
What is the mineral necessary for chemical clotting?
- A. Iron
- B. Potassium
- C. Sodium
- D. Calcium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium. Calcium is necessary for the chemical clotting process because it plays a crucial role in the activation of various clotting factors, leading to the formation of a blood clot. Without sufficient calcium, the clotting cascade would not be able to proceed effectively. Iron (choice A) is essential for red blood cell production, not clotting. Potassium (choice B) and Sodium (choice C) are important for various physiological functions but are not directly involved in the clotting process.
A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?
- A. It’s normal and requires no action
- B. It calls for a repeat Pap test in 6 weeks
- C. It calls for a repeat Pap test in 3 months
- D. It calls for a biopsy as soon as possible
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V finding on a Pap test indicates severe dysplasia or carcinoma in situ, which requires further evaluation through a biopsy to confirm the presence of abnormal cells. This finding is not normal and necessitates immediate action for diagnosis and potential treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the urgency and seriousness of a class V finding, which mandates prompt follow-up to rule out or confirm the presence of precancerous or cancerous cells.
The physician orders propranolol (Inderal) for a client's angina. The effect of this drug is to:
- A. Act as a vasoconstrictor
- B. Block beta stimulation in the heart
- C. Act as a vasodilator
- D. Increase the heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Block beta stimulation in the heart. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the beta receptors in the heart, which reduces the heart's workload and oxygen demand, making it an effective treatment for angina. By blocking beta stimulation, propranolol helps to decrease heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial contractility. This ultimately improves oxygen supply to the heart muscle.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Act as a vasoconstrictor - Propranolol does not act as a vasoconstrictor; it actually can cause vasodilation in some cases.
C: Act as a vasodilator - Propranolol is not primarily a vasodilator; its main action is to block beta stimulation in the heart.
D: Increase the heart rate - Propranolol actually decreases heart rate by blocking beta receptors in the heart.