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The nurse, admitting a 40-week primigravida to the labor unit, just documented the results of a recent vaginal exam: 3/100/—2, RSP. How should the oncoming shift nurse interpret this documentation?
- A. The fetus is approximately 2 cm below maternal ischial spines.
- B. The cervix is totally dilated and effaced, with fetal engagement.
- C. The fetus is breech and posterior to the client’s pelvis.
- D. The fetal lie is transverse, and the fetal attitude is flexion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should interpret 3/100/—2, RSP as the cervix is 3 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetus is 2 cm above the maternal ischial spines. RSP means that the fetus is to the right of the mother’s pelvis (R), with the sacrum as the specific presenting part (S), which is a breech position. This fetus is also posterior (P). At —2, the fetus is 2 cm above, not below, the maternal ischial spines. Two centimeters below the ischial spines would be recorded as +2. The cervix is 3 cm, not totally dilated. Total dilation would be documented as 10 for the first number. Also, the cervix is 100% effaced, which is total effacement (shortening and thinning out). Fetal lie (relationship of long axis or spine of fetus to long axis of mother) is longitudinal, not transverse. The documentation does not specify if the fetal attitude is flexion.
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The client has a vaginal delivery of a full-term newborn. Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses that the client’s perineum and labia are edematous, but she does not have an episiotomy or a perineal laceration. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Give her an ice pack to apply to the perineum.
- B. Teach her to relax her buttocks before sitting.
- C. Apply warm packs to the affected areas.
- D. Provide a plastic donut cushion for sitting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If perineal edema is present, ice packs should be applied for the first 24 hours. Ice reduces edema and vulvar irritation. The client should be taught to tighten, not relax, her buttocks when sitting. This compresses the buttocks and reduces pressure on the perineum. After 24 hours, heat is recommended to increase circulation to the area. Donut cushions should be avoided because they promote separation of the buttocks and decrease venous blood flow to the area, thus increasing pain.
The nurse is caring for the 24-year-old client whose pregnancy history is as follows: elective termination age 18 years, spontaneous abortion age 21 years, term vaginal delivery at 22 years old, and currently pregnant again. Which documentation by the nurse of the client’s gravidity and parity is correct?
- A. G4P1
- B. G4P2
- C. G3P1
- D. G2P1
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client has been pregnant four times in all (gravidity). This client has delivered once (parity) and is currently pregnant, so the parity is 1. Although the client has been pregnant four times in all (gravidity), she would have had to deliver two fetuses over 20 weeks old, regardless of whether either fetus survived. The client has been pregnant four times in all, not three (gravidity). Parity of 1 is correct. The client has been pregnant four times in all, not two times (gravidity). Parity of 1 is correct.
The nurse is evaluating a breastfeeding session. The nurse determines that the infant has appropriately latched on to the mother’s breast when which observations are made? Select all that apply.
- A. The mother reports a firm tugging feeling on her nipple.
- B. A smacking sound is heard each time the baby sucks.
- C. The infant’s mouth covers only the mother’s nipple.
- D. The baby’s nose, mouth, and chin are touching the breast.
- E. The infant’s cheeks are rounded when sucking.
- F. The infant’s swallowing can be heard after sucking.
Correct Answer: A,D,E,F
Rationale: If the latch is correct, the mother should feel only a firm tugging and not pain or pinching when the infant sucks. A smacking or clicking noise heard when the infant sucks is an indication that the latch is incorrect and that the infant’s tongue may be inappropriately placed. Sucking only on the mother’s nipple will cause sore nipples, and milk will not be ejected from the milk ducts. When an infant is correctly latched to the breast, 2 to 3 centimeters (1/3 to 3/4 inch) of areola should be covered by the infant’s mouth. If this occurs, it will result in the infant’s nose, mouth, and chin touching the breast. When the infant is latched correctly, the cheeks will be rounded rather than dimpled. When the infant is latched correctly, the swallowing will be audible.
The nurse is assessing the postpartum client, who is 5 hours postdelivery. Initially, the nurse is unable to palpate the client’s uterine fundus. Prioritize the nurse’s actions to locate the client’s fundus by placing each step in the correct sequence.
- A. Place the side of one hand just above the client’s symphysis pubis.
- B. Press deeply into the abdomen.
- C. Place the other hand at the level of the umbilicus.
- D. Massage the abdomen in a circular motion.
- E. Position the client in the supine position.
- F. If the fundus is not felt, move the upper hand lower on the abdomen and repeat the massage.
Correct Answer: E,A,C,B,D,F
Rationale: Position the client in supine so the height of the uterus is not influenced by an elevated position. Place the side of one hand just above the client’s symphysis pubis. This supports the lower uterine segment and prevents the inadvertent inversion of the uterus during palpation. Place the other hand at the level of the umbilicus. This is the expected location of the uterine fundus on the day of delivery. Press deeply into the abdomen to allow the massage to reach the fundus. Massage the abdomen in a circular motion. This massage should stimulate the uterus to contract and allow location of the fundus to be determined. If the fundus is not felt, move the upper hand lower on the abdomen and repeat the massage. Involution could potentially be occurring more rapidly than expected if the client is breastfeeding and/or had an uncomplicated labor and birth.
The client at 32 weeks’ gestation presents to a hospital with a severe headache. Her admission BP is 184/104 mm Hg. Based on the assessment and findings of the serum laboratory report, which most severe complication warrants the nurse’s further assessment?
- A. Renal failure
- B. Liver failure
- C. Preeclampsia
- D. HELLP syndrome
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is most important for the nurse to further assess for HELLP syndrome, a variation of pregnancy-induced hypertension characterized by hemolysis (elevated bilirubin), elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. The laboratory results do not show the serum creatinine level, so no inferences can be made about renal failure. Although liver enzymes are elevated, HELLP syndrome is a more severe complication associated with pregnancy. Preeclampsia commonly coexists with HELLP syndrome; however, these laboratory findings show worsening symptoms that are associated with HELLP syndrome.