Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions

Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions Related

Review Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions related questions and content

The emergency department (ED) triage nurse is assessing four victims involved in a motor vehicle collision. Which patient has the highest priority for treatment?

  • A. A patient with no pedal pulses.
  • B. A patient with an open femur fracture.
  • C. A patient with bleeding facial lacerations.
  • D. A patient with paradoxical chest movements.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A patient with paradoxical chest movements. This indicates flail chest, a life-threatening condition where a segment of the chest wall moves independently from the rest.
1. Flail chest can lead to respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure.
2. Immediate intervention is needed to stabilize the chest wall and support breathing.
3. Without prompt treatment, the patient can develop hypoxia and potentially progress to cardiac arrest.

Summary:
- Choice A: No pedal pulses may indicate vascular compromise but does not pose an immediate threat to life.
- Choice B: Open femur fracture requires urgent treatment but does not have the same immediate life-threatening implications as flail chest.
- Choice C: Bleeding facial lacerations can be managed after addressing more critical injuries like flail chest.

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The nurse is concerned that a patient is at increased risk of developing a pulmonary embolus and develops a plan of care for prevention to include whic h intervention?

  • A. Antiseptic oral care
  • B. Bed rest with head of bed elevated
  • C. Coughing and deep breathing
  • D. Mobility
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mobility. Maintaining mobility helps prevent blood stasis, a leading factor in the development of pulmonary embolism. Movement promotes circulation, reducing the risk of blood clots.

A: Antiseptic oral care is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to preventing pulmonary embolism.
B: Bed rest with head of bed elevated can actually increase the risk of clots due to immobility.
C: Coughing and deep breathing are beneficial for preventing respiratory complications but do not address the underlying cause of pulmonary embolism.

The nurse recommends that the family of a critically ill patient seek help from the Critical Care Family Assistance Program. What benefit for the family does the nurse anticipate?

  • A. Reduction of health care cost
  • B. More physical comfort
  • C. Multidisciplinary support
  • D. Health promotion information
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Multidisciplinary support. The Critical Care Family Assistance Program offers a range of professionals such as social workers, counselors, and financial advisors to provide holistic support to the family. This helps address emotional, financial, and practical needs during a challenging time. Option A is incorrect because the program does not directly reduce healthcare costs. Option B is incorrect as the focus is not solely on physical comfort but on comprehensive support. Option D is incorrect as the primary aim is not health promotion but rather addressing the family's immediate concerns and needs.

The nurse is concerned that the patient will pull out the en dotracheal tube. As part of the nursing management, the nurse should obtain an order for what intervention?

  • A. A Posey-type vest
  • B. A higher dosage of lorazepam
  • C. Propofol
  • D. Soft wrist restraints
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Posey-type vest is a restraint designed to prevent patients from pulling out medical devices like endotracheal tubes, ensuring their safety. It is a less restrictive option compared to wrist restraints and sedatives (B and C), which can have adverse effects and may not directly address the concern of tube removal. Using a Posey-type vest promotes patient autonomy by allowing some movement while still providing the necessary protection.

The nurse wishes to assess the quality of a patient’s pain. Which questions is appropriate to obtain this assessment if the patient is able to give a verbal response?

  • A. “Is the pain constant or intermittent?”
  • B. “Is the pain sharp, dull, or crushing?”
  • C. “What makes the pain better? Worse?”
  • D. “When did the pain start?”
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because asking if the pain is sharp, dull, or crushing helps assess the quality of pain, providing specific information on the type of sensation felt. This is crucial for understanding the underlying cause and guiding appropriate treatment.

A: Asking about pain being constant or intermittent addresses duration, not quality.
C: Inquiring about what makes pain better or worse focuses on triggers, not quality.
D: Asking when the pain started addresses onset time, not quality.

The nurse is caring for a 70-kg patient in septic shock with a pulmonary artery catheter. Which hemodynamic value indicates an appropriate response to therapy aimed at enhancing oxygen delivery to the organs and tissues?

  • A. Arterial lactate level of 1.0 mEq/L
  • B. Cardiac output of 2.5 L/min
  • C. Mixed venous (SvO ) of 40%
  • D. Cardiac index of 1.5 L/min/m2
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mixed venous (SvO2) of 40%. In septic shock, improving oxygen delivery to tissues is vital. SvO2 reflects the balance between oxygen delivery and consumption. A value of 40% indicates adequate oxygen delivery to tissues.

A: Arterial lactate level of 1.0 mEq/L - Although a low lactate level is good, it does not directly indicate improved oxygen delivery.

B: Cardiac output of 2.5 L/min - Cardiac output should ideally increase to improve oxygen delivery, so 2.5 L/min is low for a 70-kg patient.

D: Cardiac index of 1.5 L/min/m2 - Cardiac index is cardiac output adjusted for body surface area. 1.5 L/min/m2 is low and indicates inadequate cardiac function for a patient in septic shock.

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