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The nurse assesses a patient suspected of having meningitis. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?
- A. A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
- B. A high WBC count and manic activity
- C. A low WBC count and manic activity
- D. A low WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness.' Meningitis is often caused by an infectious organism, leading to an increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP), which can result in decreased level of consciousness. While meningitis can trigger an inflammatory response, it typically presents with an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count rather than a low WBC count. Manic activity is not a common clinical manifestation of meningitis; instead, patients may exhibit altered mental status, confusion, or lethargy.
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When assessing a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease with classic symptoms, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Tremors
- B. Low Urine Output
- C. Exaggerated arm movements
- D. Risk for Falls
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a patient with Parkinson's Disease, the nurse should expect to note tremors as one of the cardinal signs of the condition. The classic symptoms of Parkinson's Disease include tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movements), and postural instability. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Low urine output is not a typical assessment finding associated with Parkinson's Disease. Exaggerated arm movements are not characteristic of the usual motor symptoms seen in Parkinson's Disease. While patients with Parkinson's Disease are at an increased risk for falls due to balance and coordination issues, 'Risk for Falls' is not an assessment finding but rather a potential nursing diagnosis based on the assessment findings.
A patient with Glaucoma is verbalizing his daily medication routine to the nurse. He states he has two different eye drop medications, both every twelve hours. He washes his hands, instills the drops, closes his eyes gently, and presses his finger to the corner of his eye nearest his nose. After waiting 1 minute with his eyes closed, he instills the other medication in the same way. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. You should wait more than 1 minute between different medications.''
- B. Your routine is very good! Can you demonstrate it for me?''
- C. It is actually not the best practice to close your eyes after instilling eye drops.''
- D. You should actually be pressing your finger in the other corner of the eye.''
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: It is recommended to wait 10-15 minutes between different eye drop medications to give them time to absorb and avoid one medication washing another one out. Choice A is the correct response as the patient should wait more than 1 minute between administering different eye drop medications. Choice B is incorrect as the routine described by the patient needs improvement. Choice C is inaccurate as closing the eyes after instilling eye drops is a best practice to ensure proper absorption. Choice D is incorrect as pressing the finger to the corner of the eye nearest the nose is the correct technique.
The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?
- A. Provide smaller, more frequent feedings.
- B. Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
- C. Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula.
- D. Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.
The nurse is planning discharge instructions for the mother of a child following orchiopexy, which was performed on an outpatient basis. Which is a priority in the plan of care?
- A. Wound care
- B. Pain control measures
- C. Measurement of intake
- D. Cold and heat applications
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Following orchiopexy, the priority in the plan of care for the child's mother is wound care. The most common complications associated with orchiopexy are bleeding and infection. Discharge instructions should focus on demonstrating wound cleansing and dressing, and teaching parents to recognize signs of infection like redness, warmth, swelling, or discharge. It is crucial to prevent movement of the testicles and avoid contamination of the suture line. While analgesics may be prescribed, pain control measures are not the priority among the options presented. Measurement of intake is not essential as the child is likely to resume normal eating habits. Cold and heat applications are not typical prescribed treatments for post-orchiopexy care.
A patient with Meningitis is being treated with Vancomycin intravenously 3 times per day. The nurse notes that the urine output during the last 8 hours was 200mL. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Check the patient's last BUN levels
- B. Ask the patient to increase their fluid intake
- C. Ask the physician to order a diuretic
- D. Notify the physician of this finding
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin is a nephrotoxic drug and can cause impaired renal perfusion, which would lead to decreased urine output. This is a serious adverse effect that should be promptly reported to the physician. Checking the patient's last BUN levels (Choice A) may provide additional information but does not address the urgency of the situation. Asking the patient to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the cause is related to Vancomycin toxicity. Ordering a diuretic (Choice C) without physician evaluation can exacerbate the issue, making notifying the physician (Choice D) the most critical action to take.