The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient?
- A. Are you taking any oral contraceptives?
- B. Have you been prescribed antiseizure drugs?
- C. Do you take medication containing salicylates?
- D. How long have you been taking antihypertensive drugs?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do you take medication containing salicylates?' Petechiae are tiny, pinpoint, red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Salicylates, which are found in medications like aspirin, interfere with platelet function and can lead to petechiae and ecchymoses. Asking about salicylate-containing medications is crucial in this situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the development of petechiae.
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A 62-year-old man with chronic anemia is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations at rest. The nurse would expect the patient's laboratory test findings to include
- A. an RBC count of 4,500,000/μL.
- B. a hematocrit (Hct) value of 38%.
- C. normal red blood cell (RBC) indices.
- D. a hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In chronic anemia, the hematocrit (Hct) value is a crucial indicator of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. A hematocrit value of 38% indicates a lower than normal level of red blood cells, which aligns with the patient's symptoms of fatigue and palpitations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low RBC count, normal RBC indices, and a hemoglobin level of 8.6 g/dL do not specifically address the decreased red blood cell mass associated with chronic anemia.
A patient in the emergency department complains of back pain and difficulty breathing 15 minutes after a transfusion of packed red blood cells is started. The nurse's first action should be to
- A. administer oxygen therapy at a high flow rate
- B. obtain a urine specimen to send to the laboratory
- C. notify the healthcare provider about the symptoms
- D. disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's symptoms, back pain, and difficulty breathing after the transfusion indicate a possible acute hemolytic reaction, a severe transfusion reaction. The priority action in this situation is to discontinue the transfusion immediately to prevent further complications. Infusing normal saline helps maintain the patient's intravascular volume and prevent renal damage. Administering oxygen or obtaining a urine specimen is not the most urgent action and could delay essential treatment. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but should come after ensuring the patient's safety by stopping the blood transfusion.
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Heparin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Erythropoietin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.
The complete blood count (CBC) indicates that a patient is thrombocytopenic. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Avoid intramuscular injections.
- B. Encourage increased oral fluids.
- C. Check temperature every 4 hours.
- D. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action to include in the plan of care for a thrombocytopenic patient is to avoid intramuscular injections. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a decreased number of platelets, which are essential for blood clotting. Intramuscular injections can pose a risk of bleeding in patients with low platelet counts. Encouraging increased oral fluids (choice B) is beneficial for hydration but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with thrombocytopenia. Checking temperature every 4 hours (choice C) is important for monitoring infection but does not specifically address the risk of bleeding. Increasing intake of iron-rich foods (choice D) is more related to addressing anemia, not the primary concern of bleeding in thrombocytopenia.
An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to
- A. check all stools for occult blood
- B. encourage fluids to 3000 mL/day
- C. provide oral hygiene every 2 hours
- D. check the temperature every 4 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check all stools for occult blood. With a platelet count of 18,000/µL, the patient is at a high risk of spontaneous bleeding. Checking stools for occult blood can help detect any internal bleeding early. Encouraging fluids and providing oral hygiene are important interventions in general, but in this case, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence. Checking the temperature every 4 hours is not directly related to the patient's current condition and platelet count.
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