The nurse assesses an older adult who is newly admitted to a long-term care facility. The client has dry, flaky skin and long thickened fingernails. The client has a medical history of a stroke which resulted in left-sided paralysis and dysphagia. In planning care for the client, which task should the nurse delegate to the unlicensed personnel (UAP)?
- A. Soak and file fingernails
- B. Offer fluids frequently
- C. Monitor skin elasticity
- D. Ambulate in the hallway
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Soaking and filing fingernails is a task that can be delegated to UAP. This task does not require specialized nursing skills and can be safely performed by unlicensed personnel. Offering fluids frequently, monitoring skin elasticity, and ambulating require more skilled assessments and interventions, which are responsibilities of the nurse. The client's dry, flaky skin and long thickened fingernails indicate the need for basic hygiene care, making it appropriate for delegation to unlicensed personnel.
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What is the best response when a two-year-old boy begins to cry when his mother starts to leave?
- A. Say, 'Let's wave bye-bye to Mommy.'
- B. Say, 'Let me read this book to you.'
- C. Say, 'Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.'
- D. Say, 'Now, now, be a big boy, Mommy will be back soon.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best response in this situation is to offer a distraction to the child. Reading a book can help soothe the child during separation from the parent by redirecting their attention. Choice A might not be as effective as providing a distraction like reading a book. Choice C dismisses the child's feelings and generalizes behavior, which is not helpful. Choice D diminishes the child's emotions and does not provide a constructive way to help the child cope with the separation anxiety.
A client is admitted for an exacerbation of heart failure (HF) and is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess. In planning nursing care, which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
- A. Encourage oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day
- B. Observe for evidence of hypokalemia
- C. Teach the client how to restrict dietary sodium
- D. Monitor PTT, PT, and INR lab values
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct interventions to include when a client with heart failure is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess are to observe for evidence of hypokalemia. Diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for this electrolyte imbalance is crucial. Encouraging oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day may exacerbate fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. Teaching the client how to restrict dietary sodium is important in managing heart failure, but it is not directly related to the use of diuretics for fluid volume excess. Monitoring PTT, PT, and INR lab values is not typically associated with diuretic therapy for heart failure but rather with anticoagulant therapy.
When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI), it is most important for the nurse to include frequent assessment for which conditions in the client's plan of care?
- A. Dry mucous membranes, hypotension
- B. Decreased appetite, headache
- C. Nausea and vomiting, muscle weakness
- D. Elevated blood pressure, petechiae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes and hypotension are key indicators of dehydration in clients with diabetes insipidus. The excessive urination associated with DI can lead to fluid loss, resulting in dehydration. Therefore, monitoring for signs such as dry mucous membranes and hypotension is crucial to assess the client's hydration status. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the characteristic symptoms of DI and are less relevant in the context of this condition. Decreased appetite and headache (Choice B) are nonspecific symptoms that may occur in various conditions. Nausea, vomiting, and muscle weakness (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of DI. Elevated blood pressure and petechiae (Choice D) are not commonly associated with DI; instead, hypotension is more commonly observed due to volume depletion.
When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
- B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
- C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
- D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.
After successful resuscitation, a client is given propranolol and transferred to the Intensive Coronary Care Unit (ICCU). On admission, magnesium sulfate 4 grams IV in 250 ml D5W at one gram/hour. Which assessment findings require immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Dark amber urine draining via an indwelling catheter at a rate of 40 ml per hour
- B. Serum calcium of 9.0 mg/dl (2.2 mmol/L SI) and magnesium of 1.8 mg/dl or Eq/L (0.74 mmol/L SI)
- C. Sinus rhythm at 72 beats/minute and peripheral blood pressure of 99/62
- D. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is indicative of possible magnesium toxicity, which can be a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. It is a critical finding that needs prompt attention to prevent further complications. The other options are not as urgent: A - dark amber urine may indicate dehydration but does not require immediate intervention, B - serum calcium and magnesium levels are within normal limits, C - sinus rhythm and blood pressure values are also within normal range and do not require immediate action.
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