The nurse assesses the client in her third trimester with suspected placenta previa. Which finding should the nurse associate with placenta previa?
- A. Cervix is 100% effaced
- B. Painless vaginal bleeding
- C. The fetal lie is transverse
- D. Absence of fetal movement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In placenta previa, the abnormal location of the placenta causes painless, bright red vaginal bleeding as the lower uterine segment stretches and thins. The nurse should not perform a vaginal examination to determine effacement on the client with suspected placenta previa. The lie of the fetus is not associated with placenta previa. An absence of fetal movement is always cause for concern but is not a primary symptom of placenta previa.
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While assessing the postpartum client who is 10 hours post—vaginal delivery, the nurse notes a perineal pad that is totally saturated. To determine the significance of this finding, which question should the nurse ask the client first?
- A. “How often are you experiencing uterine cramping?”
- B. “When was the last time you changed your peri-pad?”
- C. “Are you having any bladder urgency or frequency?”
- D. “Did you pass clots that required changing your peri-pad?”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Once the nurse has determined the length of time the pad has been in place, the nurse could decide if asking about uterine cramping is appropriate. The amount of lochia on a perineal pad is influenced by the individual client’s pad changing practices. Thus, the nurse should ask about the length of time the current pad has been in place before making a judgment about whether the amount is concerning. Although bladder incontinence could cause pad saturation, it is more important to ask about the length of time the pad has been in place. Based on the client’s answer, the nurse could decide if asking about bladder urgency or frequency needs further assessment. Passing clots may require more frequent pad change, but first the nurse should determine if the reason for the saturated pad is the length of time it has been in place.
The laboring client tells the nurse that she wants to avoid an episiotomy if possible. Which response by the nurse is best?
- A. “Usually making an episiotomy incision is avoided whenever possible.”
- B. “Having an episiotomy reduces prolonged pushing and perineal trauma.”
- C. “An episiotomy is routine because it can prevent pelvic floor damage.”
- D. “Tell me more about your concerns about having an episiotomy.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This statement is best. An episiotomy may be used in some circumstances but is usually avoided if possible. Use of episiotomy increases (not reduces) perineal trauma and increases healing time. Use of episiotomy is not routine, does not decrease pelvic floor damage, and may increase the severity of the trauma. Having the client tell the nurse more about her concerns regarding episiotomy is unnecessary and avoids responding to the client’s comment.
The pregnant client presents with vaginal bleeding and increasing cramping. Her exam reveals that the cervical os is open. Which term should the nurse expect to see in the client’s chart notation to most accurately describe the client’s condition?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Complete abortion
- C. Imminent abortion
- D. Incomplete abortion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In imminent abortion, the client’s bleeding and cramping increase and the cervix is open, which indicates that abortion is imminent or inevitable. In ectopic pregnancy, the pregnancy is outside of the uterus, and intervention is indicated to resolve the pregnancy. A complete abortion indicates that the contents of the pregnancy have been passed. In an incomplete abortion, a portion of the pregnancy has been expelled, and a portion remains in the uterus.
The pregnant client asks the nurse, who is teaching a prepared childbirth class, when she should expect to feel fetal movement. The nurse responds that fetal movement usually can first be felt during which time frame?
- A. 8 to 12 weeks of pregnancy
- B. 12 to 16 weeks of pregnancy
- C. 18 to 20 weeks of pregnancy
- D. 22 to 26 weeks of pregnancy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Subtle fetal movement (quickening) can be felt as early as 18 to 20 weeks of gestation, and it gradually increases in intensity. Eight to 12 weeks of pregnancy is too early to expect the first fetal movement to be felt. Twelve to 16 weeks of pregnancy is too early to expect the first fetal movement to be felt. Twenty-two to 26 weeks of pregnancy is later than expected to feel the first fetal movement.
Which nursing instructions concerning exercise during pregnancy are accurate? Select all that apply.
- A. Avoid exercising during hot, humid weather.
- B. Avoid exercises involving bouncing or jumping movements.
- C. Drink plenty of fluids before and after exercising.
- D. Limit strenuous activity to no more than 60 minutes a session.
- E. Perform exercises only in the supine position.
- F. Limit exercising to once per week.
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: Exercising in hot weather risks overheating, bouncing movements may strain joints, and hydration is crucial. Supine exercises are avoided late in pregnancy.