Nokea
The nurse care plan for a patient with AIDS includes the diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity. What nursing intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Maximize the patients fluid intake.
- B. Provide total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
- C. Keep the patients bed linens free of wrinkles.
- D. Provide the patient with snug clothing at all times.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Skin surfaces are protected from friction and rubbing by keeping bed linens free of wrinkles and avoiding tight or restrictive clothing. Fluid intake should be adequate, and must be monitored, but maximizing fluid intake is not a goal. TPN is a nutritional intervention of last resort.
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A nurse is assessing the skin integrity of a patient who has AIDS. When performing this inspection, the nurse should prioritize assessment of what skin surfaces?
- A. Perianal region and oral mucosa
- B. Sacral region and lower abdomen
- C. Scalp and skin over the scapulae
- D. Axillae and upper thorax
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should inspect all the patients skin surfaces and mucous membranes, but the oral mucosa and perianal region are particularly vulnerable to skin breakdown and fungal infection.
A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient with stage 3 HIV. After assessing the patients gastrointestinal system and analyzing the data, what is most likely to be the priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Acute Abdominal Pain
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Bowel Incontinence
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diarrhea is a problem in 50% to 60% of all AIDS patients. As such, this nursing diagnosis is more likely than abdominal pain, incontinence, or constipation, though none of these diagnoses is guaranteed not to apply.
A patient has come into contact with HIV. As a result, HIV glycoproteins have fused with the patients CD4+ T-cell membranes. This process characterizes what phase in the HIV life cycle?
- A. Integration
- B. Attachment
- C. Cleavage
- D. Budding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the process of attachment, glycoproteins of HIV bind with the hosts uninfected CD4+ receptor and chemokine coreceptors, which results in fusion of HIV with the CD4+ T-cell membrane. Integration, cleavage, and budding are steps that are subsequent to this initial phase of the HIV life cycle.
During the admission assessment of an HIV-positive patient whose CD4+ count has recently fallen, the nurse carefully assesses for signs and symptoms related to opportunistic infections. What is the most common life-threatening infection?
- A. Salmonella infection
- B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- C. Clostridium difficile
- D. Pneumocystis pneumonia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: There are a number of opportunistic infections that can infect individuals with AIDS. The most common life-threatening infection in those living with AIDS is Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), caused by P. jiroveci (formerly carinii). Other opportunistic infections may involve Salmonella, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Clostridium difficile.
An HIV-infected patient presents at the clinic for a scheduled CD4+ count. The results of the test are 45 cells/mL, and the nurse recognizes the patients increased risk for Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC disease). The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug?
- A. Azithromycin
- B. Vancomycin
- C. Levofloxacin
- D. Fluconazole
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HIV-infected adults and adolescents should receive chemoprophylaxis against disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC disease) if they have a CD4+ count less than 50 cells/L. Azithromycin (Zithromax) or clarithromycin (Biaxin) are the preferred prophylactic agents. Vancomycin, levofloxacin, and fluconazole are not prophylactic agents for MAC.