Nokea
The nurse, caring for a client in the active stage of labor, is monitoring the fetal status and notes that the monitor strip shows a late deceleration. Based on this observation, which action should the nurse plan to take immediately?
- A. Document the findings.
- B. Prepare for immediate birth.
- C. Increase the rate of an oxytocin infusion.
- D. Administer oxygen to the client via face mask.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency as the result of decreased blood flow and oxygen transfer to the fetus through the intervillous space during the uterine contractions. This causes hypoxemia; therefore, oxygen is necessary. Although the finding needs to be documented, documentation is not the priority action in this situation. Late decelerations are considered an ominous sign but do not necessarily require immediate birth of the baby. The oxytocin infusion should be discontinued when a late deceleration is noted. The oxytocin would cause further hypoxemia because the medication stimulates contractions and leads to increased uteroplacental insufficiency.
You may also like to solve these questions
The client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease is scheduled for hemodialysis. When should the nurse plan to administer the client's daily dose of enalapril to ensure its effectiveness?
- A. During dialysis
- B. Just before dialysis
- C. The day after dialysis
- D. Upon return from dialysis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Antihypertensive medications, such as enalapril, are administered to the client after hemodialysis. This prevents the client from becoming hypotensive during dialysis and also from having the medication removed from the bloodstream by dialysis. There is no rationale for waiting a full day to resume the medication. This would lead to ineffective control of the blood pressure.
What action should the nurse take to assess the pharyngeal reflex on a child?
- A. Ask the client to swallow.
- B. Pull down on the lower eyelid.
- C. Shine a light toward the bridge of the nose.
- D. Stimulate the back of the throat with a tongue depressor.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The pharyngeal (gag) reflex is tested by touching the back of the throat with an object, such as a tongue depressor. A positive response to this reflex is considered normal. Asking the client to swallow assesses the swallowing reflex. To assess the palpebral conjunctiva, the nurse would pull down and evert the lower eyelid. The corneal light reflex is tested by shining a penlight toward the bridge of the nose at a distance of 12 to 15 inches (light reflection should be symmetrical in both corneas).
The nurse monitoring a postoperative client should recognize which behaviors as indicators that the client is in pain? Select all that apply.
- A. Gasping
- B. Lip biting
- C. Muscle tension
- D. Pacing activities
- E. Staring out the window
- F. Asking for the television to be turned off
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Rationale: The nurse should assess verbalization, vocal response, facial and body movements, and social interaction as indicators of pain. Behavioral indicators of pain include gasping, lip biting (facial expressions), muscle tension, pacing activities, moaning, crying, grunting (vocalizations), grimacing, clenching teeth, wrinkling the forehead, tightly closing or widely opening the eyes or mouth, restlessness, immobilization, increased hand and finger movements, rhythmic or rubbing motions, protective movements of body parts (body movement), avoidance of conversation, focusing only on activities for pain relief, avoiding social contacts and interactions, and reduced attention span. Options 5 and 6 are not to be assumed as pain-related behaviors because there can be a variety of reasons for such actions.
The nurse is monitoring a client in the telemetry unit who has recently been admitted with the diagnosis of chest pain and notes this heart rate pattern on the monitoring strip. What is the initial action to be taken by the nurse?
- A. Notify the primary health care provider.
- B. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
- C. Continue to monitor the client and the heart rate patterns.
- D. Administer oxygen with a face mask at 8 to 10 L per minute.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The monitor is showing ventricular fibrillation, a life-threatening dysrhythmia that requires CPR and defibrillation to maintain life. Although the primary health care provider must be notified, CPR is the initial action. Oxygen is necessary, but again the initiation of CPR is the priority because it will provide more than just oxygen to the client. Monitoring the client is necessary, but not as an initial action; emergency resuscitative treatment must be provided to the client immediately.
The nurse notes this cardiac rhythm on the cardiac monitor (refer to figure). What should the nurse interpret that the client is experiencing?
- A. Atrial fibrillation
- B. Sinus bradycardia
- C. Ventricular fibrillation (VF)
- D. Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PVCs are abnormal ectopic beats (occurring in otherwise normal sinus rhythm) originating in the ventricles. They are characterized by an absence of P waves, wide and bizarre QRS complexes, and a compensatory pause that follows the ectopy. In atrial fibrillation, no definitive P wave usually can be observed; only fibrillatory waves before each QRS complex are observed. In sinus bradycardia, atrial and ventricular rhythms are regular, and the rates are less than 60 beats per minute. In ventricular fibrillation, impulses from many irritable foci in the ventricles fire in a totally disorganized manner, which appears as a chaotic rapid rhythm in which the ventricles quiver.