The nurse is planning a teaching session for staff on ethical theories. Which situation best reflects the Deontologic theory?
- A. Approving a physician-assisted suicide
- B. Supporting the transplantation of fetal tissue and organs
- C. Using experimental medications for the treatment of AIDS
- D. Initiating resuscitative measures on a 90-year-old patient with terminal cancer
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Deontologic theory, also known as deontological ethics, focuses on the duty to follow moral rules and obligations regardless of the consequences. In this scenario, initiating resuscitative measures on a 90-year-old patient with terminal cancer reflects a commitment to upholding the duty to provide care and uphold the sanctity of life. Despite the patient's poor prognosis, the nurse is ethically bound to provide care according to established principles and guidelines, emphasizing duty over outcome. This aligns with the Deontologic theory's emphasis on following moral rules and obligations without consideration of the consequences.
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A nurse is admitting a patient to the labor and birth unit in early labor that was sent to the facility following a checkup with her health care provider in the office. The patient is a gravida 1, para 0, and is at term. No health issues are discerned from the initial assessment, and the nurse prepares to initiate physician orders based on standard procedures. Which action by the nurse manager is warranted in this situation?
- A. No action is indicated because the nurse is acting within the scope of practice.
- B. The nurse manager should intervene and ask the nurse to clarify admission orders directly with the physician.
- C. The nurse manager should review standard procedures with the nurse to validate that orders are being carried out accurately.
- D. The nurse manger should review the admission procedure with the nurse.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is admitting a patient based on orders initiated by the physician during an office visit. Given that the patient is in early labor and has no discernible health issues, the nurse manager should intervene and ask the nurse to clarify the admission orders directly with the physician. It is important to ensure clarity and accuracy when carrying out physician orders, especially in situations where there may be ambiguity or room for misinterpretation. By verifying the orders with the physician, the nurse can help prevent any potential errors or miscommunications that may impact the patient's care.
A 48-year-old female patient presents to the OB/GYN clinic for her annual examination. She states that she has had the following symptoms: mood swings, irregular menstrual cycles, forgetfulness, food cravings, and a decrease in libido. Which of the following does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
- A. Menopause
- B. Perimenopause
- C. Postmenopause
- D. Pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Perimenopause is the transitional period leading to menopause that usually begins in a woman's 40s but can start earlier. During this phase, women may experience symptoms such as mood swings, irregular menstrual cycles, forgetfulness, food cravings, and a decrease in libido, as described by the patient in this case. These symptoms are caused by hormonal fluctuations as the ovaries start to produce less estrogen in preparation for menopause. Menopause occurs when a woman has not had a menstrual period for 12 consecutive months. Postmenopause, on the other hand, refers to the stage after menopause, where menopausal symptoms have generally subsided. The symptoms described by the patient are more indicative of the perimenopausal stage rather than pregnancy, as they are typical signs of hormonal changes associated with the menopausal transition.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has HSV and is pregnant. The patient is concerned about the fetus. What medication is safest to take?
- A. valacyclovir
- B. none
- C. acyclovir
- D. famciclovir
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acyclovir is the antiviral medication of choice for treating HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus) infections during pregnancy due to its known safety profile. It is classified as Category B by the FDA, indicating that there is no evidence of risk to the fetus based on animal studies. Valacyclovir and famciclovir, on the other hand, are both classified as Category B (risk cannot be ruled out) and Category C (animal studies have shown adverse effects) by the FDA, respectively. It is generally recommended to avoid taking unnecessary medications during pregnancy, but if treatment for HSV is necessary, acyclovir is considered the safest option.
A nurse is working in the area of labor and birth. Her assignment is to take care of a gravida 1 para 0 woman who presents in early labor at term. Vaginal exam reflects the following: 2 cm, cervix posterior, –1 station, and vertex with membranes intact. The patient asks the nurse if she can break her water so that her labor can go faster. The nurse’s response, based on the ethical principle of nonmaleficence, is which of the following?
- A. Tell the patient that she will have to wait until she has progressed further on the vaginal exam and then she will perform an amniotomy.
- B. Have the patient write down her request and then call the physician for an order to implement the amniotomy.
- C. Instruct the patient that only a physician or certified midwife can perform this procedure.
- D. Give the patient an enema to stimulate labor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response based on the ethical principle of nonmaleficence, which refers to the duty to do no harm, is to tell the patient that she will have to wait until she has progressed further on the vaginal exam and then perform an amniotomy. In this scenario, breaking the patient's water prematurely could introduce risks and potential harm without clear medical necessity. Performing an amniotomy too early could increase the risk of infection or cause umbilical cord prolapse, which can be harmful to both the mother and the baby. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to wait until the patient has progressed further in labor before considering an amniotomy.
Which goal is most appropriate for the collaborative problem of wound infection?
- A. The patient will not exhibit further signs of infection.
- B. Maintain the patient’s fluid intake at 1000 mL/8 hour.
- C. The patient will have a temperature of 98.6F within 2 days.
- D. Monitor the patient to detect therapeutic response to antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate goal for the collaborative problem of wound infection is "The patient will not exhibit further signs of infection." This goal directly addresses the issue of controlling and resolving the infection within the wound, leading to the overall improvement in the patient's condition. By ensuring that the patient does not exhibit further signs of infection, healthcare providers can monitor the effectiveness of treatment interventions and prevent any complications that may arise from the infection spreading or worsening. In contrast, options B, C, and D are not directly related to addressing the wound infection itself, making them less appropriate goals for this specific problem.