Nokea
The nurse enters a client’s room just as the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is completing a bath and placing thigh-high anti-embolism stockings on the client. Which situation would cause the nurse to intervene?
- A. UAP applies the anti-embolism stockings while maintaining the client in supine position
- B. UAP carefully smoothes out any wrinkles over the length of the stockings
- C. UAP checks that the toe opening of the stockings is located on the plantar side of the foot
- D. UAP rolls down and folds over the excess material at the top of the stockings
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rolling and folding the stockings creates pressure points, risking skin breakdown and poor circulation. Supine application and correct toe opening placement are appropriate.
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The nurse is interviewing a 5-year-old client who is reporting abdominal pain. Which of the following are effective strategies for communicating with the child? Select all that apply.
- A. Allow the child to describe the symptoms
- B. Ask closed-ended questions to obtain pertinent information
- C. Explain procedures to match the child's concrete thinking
- D. Interview the child separately from the parents
- E. Maintain an eye-level position when speaking with the child
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: Allowing the child to describe symptoms encourages open communication, and interviewing separately reduces parental influence, ensuring accurate reporting. Closed-ended questions may limit a young child’s ability to express complex symptoms.
A graduate student, who has been studying for final exams and using energy drinks to stay awake, comes to the clinic reporting a fluttering feeling in the chest. The student is connected to the cardiac monitor that displays the rhythm in the exhibit. The nurse recognizes this as which rhythm?
- A. Atrial fibrillation
- B. Sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions
- C. Sinus rhythm with premature ventricular contractions
- D. Ventricular tachycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The fluttering feeling and irregular rhythm suggest premature atrial contractions, often triggered by stimulants like energy drinks. Atrial fibrillation shows chaotic waves, ventricular contractions have wide QRS complexes, and ventricular tachycardia is life-threatening, not matching the description.
An adult is admitted for surgery today. Immediately after administering the preoperative medications of meperidine and atropine, the nurse notes that the operative permit has not been signed. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Have the client sign the operative permit immediately before the medications take effect
- B. Have the client's next of kin sign the permission form
- C. Ask the client if he/she is willing to undergo surgery, sign the form for the client, and indicate the nurse's name as witness to the client's verbal consent
- D. Report it to the physician so the surgery can be delayed until the client can legally sign a consent form
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Preoperative medications like meperidine impair judgment, making consent invalid post-administration. Reporting to the physician to delay surgery ensures legal and ethical consent.
A client on the oncology unit is to receive heparin sodium 5 units per kilogram of body weight by subcutaneous route every 4 hours. The client weighs 105.6 lbs. How many units should the client receive in a 24-hour period?
- A. 800
- B. 1080
- C. 1440
- D. 1960
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client weighs 48 kg and should receive 5 units/kg, or 240 units every 4 hours. This would be 1440 units in 24 hours. The answers in A, B, and D are incorrect calculations.
The nurse is reviewing the plan of care for multiple clients receiving opioids for pain management. Which client has the greatest risk for respiratory depression?
- A. 20-year-old client with chronic bronchitis who is receiving inhaled albuterol therapy every 4 hours
- B. 30-year-old client with opioid use disorder who had rotator cuff repair surgery this morning
- C. 50-year-old client with sleep apnea and left foot cellulitis who is scheduled for a bone scan later today
- D. 70-year-old client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who had knee replacement this morning
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 70-year-old with COPD is at highest risk for opioid-induced respiratory depression due to age-related reduced lung capacity and COPD-related impaired gas exchange. Chronic bronchitis and opioid use disorder increase risk but are less severe in this context.