Nokea
The nurse evaluates that furosemide IV is effective in treating pulmonary edema if which of the following patient signs or symptoms is resolved?
- A. Pedal edema
- B. Pink, frothy sputum
- C. Jugular vein distention
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide IV is a diuretic medication commonly used to treat conditions such as pulmonary edema. In the case of pulmonary edema, the excess fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to symptoms such as difficulty breathing, wheezing, and the production of pink, frothy sputum. The presence of pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema and indicates the presence of fluid in the airways. Therefore, the nurse would evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide IV treatment by monitoring the resolution of this specific symptom, as it indicates improvement in the underlying condition of pulmonary edema.
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Parents bring their infant to the clinic, seeking treatment for vomiting and diarrhea that has lasted for 2 days. On assessment, the nurse in charge detects dry mucous membranes and lethargy. What other findings suggests a fluid volume deficit?
- A. A sunken fontanel
- B. Decreased pulse rate
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Low urine specific gravity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A sunken fontanel is a classic sign of dehydration in infants. When a child is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the body's priority is to maintain blood flow to vital organs, resulting in decreased blood circulation to the skin and extremities. Consequently, decreased skin turgor and a sunken fontanel are common manifestations of dehydration. Other signs of fluid volume deficit may include dry mucous membranes, lethargy, decreased urine output, and increased heart rate.
Why should the nurse wake up a client who is to undergo an EEG at midnight?
- A. Because excess sleep may make the client lazy and nervous for the EEG
- B. Because optimum sleep helps regulate the breathing patterns during the EEG
- C. Because it helps the client to fall asleep naturally during the EEG
- D. Because it reduces the chances of getting a headache when electrodes are fixed to the scalp of the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should wake up a client who is to undergo an EEG at midnight to ensure that the client receives optimum sleep before the procedure. Optimum sleep helps regulate the client's breathing patterns during the EEG, resulting in more accurate readings. Adequate rest is essential for brain activity monitoring to be as normal as possible. Waking the client at midnight allows for enough time for the client to fall back asleep before the EEG is conducted, ensuring the best possible conditions for the procedure.
A client is admitted for postoperative assessment and recovery after surgery for a kidney tumor. The nurse needs to assess for signs of urinary tract infection. Which of the ff measures can be used to help detect UTI?
- A. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and cough every 2hrs
- B. Monitor temperature every 4hrs
- C. Splint the incision when repositioning the client
- D. Irrigate tubes as ordered CARING FOR CLIENTS WITH DISORDERS OF THE BLADDER AND URETHRA
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring temperature every 4 hours is crucial in detecting signs of a urinary tract infection in a postoperative client. An increase in temperature can indicate the presence of an infection, and early identification is essential for prompt treatment. While coughing and deep breathing (Option A) are beneficial for postoperative clients to prevent respiratory complications, they are not directly related to detecting UTI. Splinting the incision (Option C) is important for incisional care but does not specifically help in detecting UTI. Irrigating tubes (Option D) should only be done as ordered by the healthcare provider and is not a routine measure for detecting UTI.
An adult who has gastroenteritis and is on digitalis ha lab values of: K 3.2 mEq/L, Na 136 mEq/L, Ca 8.8 mg/dl, and Cl 98 mEq/L. the nurse puts which of the following on the client's plan of care?
- A. Stop digitalis therapy
- B. Observe for trousseau's and chovestek's
- C. Avoid foods rich in potassium signs
- D. Observe for digitalis toxicity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client's low potassium level (K 3.2 mEq/L) is a cause for concern, especially in a patient on digitalis therapy. Digitalis (such as digoxin) can potentiate the effects of hypokalemia, leading to an increased risk of digitalis toxicity. Therefore, in this scenario, it is important to avoid foods rich in potassium to prevent further lowering of the potassium level. It is essential to address the electrolyte imbalance promptly to prevent potential complications related to digitalis therapy.
Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse expect to see in a plan of care for a client in sickle cell crisis?
- A. Imbalanced nutrition:Less than body requirements related to poor intake
- B. Disturbed sleep pattern related to external stimuli
- C. Impaired skin integrity related to pruritus
- D. Pain related to sickle cell crisis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sickle cell crisis is characterized by intense pain due to the vaso-occlusive properties of sickled red blood cells leading to tissue ischemia. Therefore, pain is the primary nursing diagnosis that the nurse should expect to see in the plan of care for a client experiencing a sickle cell crisis. Managing and alleviating the pain is a priority in the care of these clients to improve quality of life and prevent complications. Other nursing diagnoses such as imbalanced nutrition, disturbed sleep pattern, and impaired skin integrity may not be directly related to the acute crisis and would not be the priority focus of care in this situation.