The nurse explains that, in addition to increased blood volume, which other condition causes varicose veins during pregnancy?
- A. Impaired venous return
- B. Decreased cardiac output
- C. Altered center of gravity
- D. Impaired kidney function
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Impaired venous return, due to the uterus compressing veins, causes varicose veins, compounded by increased blood volume.
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The client has a vaginal delivery of a full-term newborn. Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses that the client’s perineum and labia are edematous, but she does not have an episiotomy or a perineal laceration. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Give her an ice pack to apply to the perineum.
- B. Teach her to relax her buttocks before sitting.
- C. Apply warm packs to the affected areas.
- D. Provide a plastic donut cushion for sitting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If perineal edema is present, ice packs should be applied for the first 24 hours. Ice reduces edema and vulvar irritation. The client should be taught to tighten, not relax, her buttocks when sitting. This compresses the buttocks and reduces pressure on the perineum. After 24 hours, heat is recommended to increase circulation to the area. Donut cushions should be avoided because they promote separation of the buttocks and decrease venous blood flow to the area, thus increasing pain.
At this point in the client's pregnancy, which test is typically used to detect genetic disorders?
- A. Amniocentesis
- B. Chorionic villi sampling
- C. Rapid plasma reagin
- D. Ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chorionic villi sampling is performed at 10-13 weeks to detect genetic disorders, suitable for a 10-week pregnancy.
Which activity promotes postpartum healing?
- A. Resting and limiting strenuous activity
- B. Lifting heavy objects
- C. Skipping follow-up visits
- D. Eating a low-protein diet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Resting and limiting strenuous activity support physical recovery and healing after childbirth.
The nurse, admitting a 40-week primigravida to the labor unit, just documented the results of a recent vaginal exam: 3/100/—2, RSP. How should the oncoming shift nurse interpret this documentation?
- A. The fetus is approximately 2 cm below maternal ischial spines.
- B. The cervix is totally dilated and effaced, with fetal engagement.
- C. The fetus is breech and posterior to the client’s pelvis.
- D. The fetal lie is transverse, and the fetal attitude is flexion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should interpret 3/100/—2, RSP as the cervix is 3 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetus is 2 cm above the maternal ischial spines. RSP means that the fetus is to the right of the mother’s pelvis (R), with the sacrum as the specific presenting part (S), which is a breech position. This fetus is also posterior (P). At —2, the fetus is 2 cm above, not below, the maternal ischial spines. Two centimeters below the ischial spines would be recorded as +2. The cervix is 3 cm, not totally dilated. Total dilation would be documented as 10 for the first number. Also, the cervix is 100% effaced, which is total effacement (shortening and thinning out). Fetal lie (relationship of long axis or spine of fetus to long axis of mother) is longitudinal, not transverse. The documentation does not specify if the fetal attitude is flexion.
On the basis of the client's statement, what can the nurse conclude?
- A. The client is having twins.
- B. The client is between 14 and 18 weeks' gestation.
- C. The client is in the first trimester.
- D. The client's due date will be difficult to calculate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fetal movement in a multigravida is typically felt earlier, around 14-18 weeks, aligning with the client's report.