Nokea
The nurse explains “watchful waiting” (ongoing visits to a physician for observation of signs and symptoms without treatment) to the client with prostate cancer. Which client is a candidate for “watchful waiting”?
- A. 50-year-old with prostate cancer that has metastasized to the bone
- B. 75-year-old expected to live 5 years and has low-grade disease
- C. 45-year-old who has extension of the tumor outside of the prostate
- D. 59-year-old who is asymptomatic with an elevated prostate-specific antigen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A. The client with prostate cancer that has metastasized to the bone generally requires aggressive therapy. B. The client is a candidate for “watchful waiting” when older than age 70 with a life expectancy of less than 10 years and with low-grade disease. C. The client with extension of the tumor outside of the prostate generally requires aggressive therapy. D. The client who is asymptomatic with an elevated prostate-specific antigen generally requires aggressive therapy.
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The nurse is caring for the female client recovering from a sickle cell crisis. The client tells the nurse her family is planning a trip this summer to Yellowstone National Park. Which response would be best for the nurse?
- A. That sounds like a wonderful trip to take this summer.'
- B. Have you talked to your doctor about taking the trip?'
- C. You really should not take a trip to areas with high altitudes.'
- D. Why do you want to go to Yellowstone National Park?'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High altitudes (e.g., Yellowstone) reduce oxygen, risking SCA crisis (C). Generic praise (A), deferring to HCP (B), or questioning motive (D) are less direct.
The client diagnosed with von Willebrand’s disease calls a clinic after experiencing hemarthrosis. The client states that factor concentrate is infusing. Which intervention should the nurse recommend now?
- A. “Take two 325-mg aspirin tablets every 4 hours for pain.”
- B. “Apply a cold pack to the area for 30 minutes every 1 to 2 hours.”
- C. “Come to the clinic; you need an infusion of fresh frozen plasma.”
- D. “If wearing a splint, remove it to avoid compartment syndrome.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A. Aspirin (Ecotrin) and NSAIDs are contraindicated because they interfere with platelet aggregation. B. Hemarthrosis is bleeding into the joint. The pressure of the ice pack and cold will reduce the bleeding and swelling. The ice pack should be covered with a cloth. C. The client and family are usually taught how to administer factor concentrates at home at the first sign of bleeding. D. The splint should be left on initially to control bleeding. The client should be instructed on how to assess for adequate tissue perfusion.
Following morning shift report, the nurse identifies care needs for four clients. Which client should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. The client with lung cancer who is to receive ondansetron 8 mg IV 30 minutes prior to chemotherapy
- B. The client with an absolute neutrophil count of 98/mm3 who needs to be placed on neutropenic precautions
- C. The client who is stable but has breast cancer and is scheduled for external beam radiation in 15 minutes
- D. The client with stomatitis from radiation for tonsillar cancer who is to receive a gastrostomy tube feeding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A. No time is noted for the administration of ondansetron (Zofran) prior to chemotherapy treatment; this client is not the nurse’s priority. B. The client with neutropenia should be the nurse’s priority. If seen first, microorganisms from other clients would be less likely to be transmitted to the client. This client is at risk for infection and severe sepsis because the absolute neutrophil count is less than 1001mm3 (normal = 1500 to 8000/mm3). C. This client is stable; another person can take this client to radiation therapy, and the nurse’s assessment can wait until the client returns. D. The tube feeding can be initiated after the needs of the most critical client are met.
The client is diagnosed with non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which nursing concept should the nurse identify as priority?
- A. Immunity.
- B. Grieving.
- C. Perfusion.
- D. Clotting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: NHL impairs immunity (A) via lymph node dysfunction, increasing infection risk, a priority. Grieving (B), perfusion (C), and clotting (D) are secondary.
Which sign/symptom should the nurse expect to assess in the client diagnosed with hemophilia A?
- A. Epistaxis.
- B. Petechiae.
- C. Subcutaneous emphysema.
- D. Intermittent claudication.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hemophilia A causes bleeding; epistaxis (A) is common. Petechiae (B) indicate thrombocytopenia, emphysema (C) is unrelated, and claudication (D) is vascular.