Nokea
The nurse fails to obtain scheduled VS at 0200 hours for the client who had cardiac surgery 2 days ago. After assessing the client at 0600 hours, the nurse documents the 0600 HR for both the 0200 and 0600 VS. Which conclusion should a supervising charge nurse make about the nurse’s actions? Select all that apply.
- A. The nurse’s action was acceptable; neither complications nor harmful effects occurred.
- B. The nurse’s action is concerning legally; the nurse fraudulently falsified documentation.
- C. The nurse’s action demonstrates beneficence; the nurse decided what was best for the client.
- D. The nurse’s action is extremely concerning; it involves the ethical issue of veracity.
- E. The nurse’s action demonstrates distributive justice; other clients’ needs were priority.
Correct Answer: B;D
Rationale: The charge nurse should conclude: B) Falsifying documentation is a legal concern; D) The action involves the ethical issue of veracity (truthfulness). The action is not acceptable (A), does not show beneficence (C), and there’s no evidence of distributive justice (E).
You may also like to solve these questions
The client, returning from a coronary catheterization in which the femoral artery approach was used, sneezes. Which should be the nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Palpate pedal pulses
- B. Measure vital signs
- C. Assess for urticaria
- D. Check the insertion site
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Checking the insertion site is priority. Sneezing increases intra-abdominal pressure and increases the risk for clot disruption and bleeding from the femoral artery. Pedal pulses, vital signs, and urticaria are secondary concerns.
The client with a left anterior descending (LAD) 90% blockage has crushing chest pain that is unrelieved by taking sublingual nitroglycerin. Which ECG finding is most concerning and should alert the nurse to immediately notify the HCP?
- A. Q waves
- B. Flipped T waves
- C. Peaked T waves
- D. ST segment elevation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned about ST elevation because it indicates an evolving MI. Q waves suggest a previous MI, flipped T waves indicate ischemia, and peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia, but ST elevation is the most acute and critical finding.
The client is discovered to have a popliteal aneurysm. Because of the aneurysm, the nurse should closely monitor the client for which associated problem?
- A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
- B. Ischemia in the lower limb
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Raynaud’s phenomenon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A popliteal aneurysm (located in the space behind the knee) may cause ischemia in the leg distal to the aneurysm due to thrombus forming inside the aneurysm and potential emboli. Other options are unrelated to popliteal aneurysms.
The nurse is caring for the client with varicose veins. Which action should indicate to the nurse that an expected outcome has been met?
- A. States will walk daily to promote venous return
- B. Reports decreased need for compression stockings
- C. States can finally stand for prolonged periods of time
- D. Chooses diet high in potassium and low in magnesium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Walking promotes venous return; verbalizing intent to increase activity indicates an expected outcome has been met for the client with varicose veins. Decreased stocking use, prolonged standing, and specific diets are not beneficial.
The client calls for the nurse after experiencing sharp chest pains that radiate to the left shoulder. All of the following interventions were prescribed on admission for treating chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Oxygen 4 liters by nasal cannula
- C. Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual
- D. Morphine sulfate 2-4 mg IV prn
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oxygen should be available in the room and should be initiated first to enhance oxygen flow to the myocardium. ECG, nitroglycerin, and morphine are important but secondary to improving oxygenation in acute chest pain.