Nokea
The nurse has a prescription to ambulate a client with a nephrostomy tube four times a day. The nurse determines that the safest way to ambulate the client while maintaining the integrity of the nephrostomy tube is to implement which intervention?
- A. Change the drainage bag to a leg collection bag.
- B. Tie the drainage bag to the client's waist while ambulating.
- C. Use a walker to hang the drainage bag from while ambulating.
- D. Tell the client to hold the drainage bag higher than the level of the bladder.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The safest approach to protect the integrity and safety of the nephrostomy tube with a mobile client is to attach the tube to a leg collection bag. This allows for greater freedom of movement, while preventing accidental disconnection or dislodgment. The drainage bag is kept below the level of the bladder. Option 3 presents the risk of tension or pulling on the nephrostomy tube by the client during ambulation.
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An adult client has undergone a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. After reviewing the results of the analysis, the nurse recognizes that the CSF is normal when which element is negative?
- A. Protein
- B. Glucose
- C. Red blood cells
- D. White blood cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The adult with a normal CSF has no red blood cells in the CSF. Protein (15-45 mg/dL [0.15-0.45 g/L]) and glucose (50-75 mg/dL [2.8-4.2 mmol/L]) are normally present in CSF. The client may have small levels of white blood cells (0-5 cells/mcL [0-5 × 10^6/L]).
The nurse is performing pin-site care on a client in skeletal traction. Which normal finding should the nurse expect to note when assessing the pin sites?
- A. Loose but intact pin sites
- B. Clear drainage from the pin sites
- C. Purulent drainage from the pin sites
- D. Redness and swelling around the pin sites
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A small amount of clear drainage ('weeping') may be expected after cleaning and removing crusting around the pin sites of skeletal traction. Pins should not be loose; if this is noted, the primary health care provider should be notified. Purulent drainage and redness and swelling around the pin sites may be indicative of an infection.
A client is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. The primary health care provider has added 7 cm of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the client's ventilator settings. The nurse should assess for which expected but adverse effect of PEEP?
- A. Decreased peak pressure on the ventilator
- B. Increased rectal temperature from 98°F to 100°F
- C. Decreased heart rate from 78 to 64 beats per minute
- D. Systolic blood pressure decrease from 122 to 98 mm Hg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP improves oxygenation by enhancing gas exchange and preventing atelectasis. PEEP leads to increased intrathoracic pressure, which in turn leads to decreased cardiac output. This is manifested in the client by decreased systolic blood pressure and increased pulse (compensatory). Peak pressures on the ventilator should not be affected, although the pressure at the end of expiration remains positive at the level set for the PEEP. Fever indicates respiratory infection or infection from another source.
During history taking of a client admitted with newly diagnosed Hodgkin's disease, which symptom should the nurse expect the client to report?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Night sweats
- C. Severe lymph node pain
- D. Headache with minor visual changes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessment of a client with Hodgkin's disease most often reveals night sweats; enlarged, painless lymph nodes; fever; and malaise. Weight loss may be present if metastatic disease occurs. Headache and visual changes may occur if brain metastasis is present.
The nurse is caring for a client with a terminal condition who is dying. Which respiratory assessment findings should indicate to the nurse that death is imminent? Select all that apply.
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Kussmaul's respiration
- E. Irregular respiratory pattern
- F. Adventitious bubbling lung sounds
Correct Answer: A,B,E,F
Rationale: Respiratory assessment findings that indicate death is imminent include poor gas exchange as evidenced by hypoxia, dyspnea, or cyanosis; altered patterns of respiration, such as slow, labored, irregular, or Cheyne-Stokes pattern (alternating periods of apnea and deep, rapid breathing); increased respiratory secretions and adventitious bubbling lung sounds (death rattle); and irritation of the tracheobronchial airway as evidenced by hiccups, chest pain, fatigue, or exhaustion. Kussmaul's respirations are abnormally deep, very rapid sighing respirations characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis. Tachypnea is defined as rapid breathing.