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Which of the following salivary glands is located inferior and posterior to the mandible and produces serous saliva rich in enzymes?
- A. Parotid gland
- B. Sublingual gland
- C. Submandibular gland
- D. Submaxillary gland
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The submandibular gland is located inferior and posterior to the mandible. It produces a mixed type of saliva, which is primarily serous (enzyme-rich) but also contains some mucous components. This gland plays a significant role in digestion, as its serous saliva contains enzymes such as amylase that help break down carbohydrates in the mouth before they reach the stomach.
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A patient with advanced dementia is no longer able to communicate verbally and displays signs of distress. What should the palliative nurse consider when assessing and managing the patient's distress?
- A. Focus solely on physical comfort measures to alleviate distress.
- B. Assume the patient's distress is solely related to physical discomfort.
- C. Explore non-verbal cues and behaviors to identify the underlying causes of distress.
- D. Administer sedative medications to manage the patient's agitation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When assessing and managing distress in a patient with advanced dementia who is no longer able to communicate verbally, the palliative nurse should consider exploring non-verbal cues and behaviors to identify the underlying causes of distress. Since the patient cannot communicate through words, it is essential to pay close attention to their non-verbal cues such as facial expressions, body language, and changes in behavior. Distress in dementia patients can be caused by a variety of factors including physical discomfort, unmet needs, environmental stressors, emotional distress, or even medication side effects. By carefully observing and interpreting non-verbal cues, the nurse can gain insight into what might be causing the patient's distress and tailor interventions accordingly. Simply focusing on physical comfort measures may not address the root cause of the distress, and administering sedative medications without understanding the underlying cause is not considered best practice in palliative care for dementia patients.
The elderly should be affforded health protection by
- A. Avoid end hazards
- B. Pollution environment
- C. Placing them in the home for the aged
- D. Regular health check ups
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Regular health check-ups play a crucial role in the prevention, early detection, and management of health issues, especially for the elderly. By ensuring that the elderly receive regular health check-ups, healthcare providers can monitor their health status, detect any potential health problems early on, and provide appropriate medical interventions. This proactive approach can help protect the elderly from developing serious health issues or complications. Additionally, regular health check-ups can also promote overall health and well-being, allowing healthcare professionals to address any existing health concerns and provide necessary treatments or recommendations to maintain the elderly's health and quality of life.
A patient with renal failure presents with confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath. Laboratory findings reveal severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
- B. Uremic encephalopathy
- C. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
- D. Hepatic encephalopathy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with renal failure, confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath, along with laboratory findings of severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated BUN and creatinine levels, is consistent with uremic encephalopathy. Uremic encephalopathy is a neurological complication of acute or chronic renal failure resulting from the buildup of uremic toxins in the blood, leading to various neurological symptoms such as confusion and seizures. The sweet odor to the breath can be attributed to the presence of urea, a waste product that accumulates in renal failure. Other metabolic abnormalities like hyperkalemia and severe metabolic acidosis are also common in renal failure. It is crucial to promptly recognize and manage uremic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological complications.
A postpartum client presents with sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachycardia. Which nursing action should be prioritized?
- A. Elevating the head of the bed
- B. Providing supplemental oxygen therapy
- C. Administering analgesics for pain relief
- D. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachycardia in a postpartum client can be indicative of serious conditions such as pulmonary embolism or myocardial infarction. These conditions are emergencies that require immediate medical attention. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is the priority to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention to address the potential life-threatening situation. While other nursing interventions such as elevating the head of the bed, providing supplemental oxygen therapy, and administering analgesics may be necessary, they should be done after notifying the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management of the underlying cause.
A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed phosphate binders. Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education about phosphate binder therapy?
- A. "Take phosphate binders with meals."
- B. "Avoid taking phosphate binders with calcium supplements."
- C. "Increase your intake of foods high in phosphorus."
- D. "Take phosphate binders on an empty stomach."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in patient education about phosphate binder therapy is to "Take phosphate binders with meals." Phosphate binders are medications given to patients with chronic kidney disease to help control high phosphate levels in the blood. Taking phosphate binders with meals allows them to bind to the phosphorus present in the food, reducing its absorption in the body. This helps to lower blood phosphate levels effectively. Instructing the patient to take phosphate binders with meals ensures optimal binding of phosphorus from the diet, which is crucial for managing phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease.