Nokea
The nurse has implemented a plan of care for a client diagnosed with a cervical 5 (C5) spinal cord injury to promote health maintenance. Which client outcome indicates the effectiveness of the plan?
- A. Maintenance of intact skin
- B. Regaining of bladder and bowel control
- C. Performance of activities of daily living independently
- D. Independent transfer of self to and from the wheelchair
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A C5 spinal cord injury results in quadriplegia with no sensation below the clavicle, including most of the arms and hands. The client maintains the partial movement of the shoulders and elbows. Maintaining intact skin is an outcome for spinal cord injury clients. The remaining options are inappropriate for this client.
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Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- C. Biot's respirations
- D. Cluster breathing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.
Which of the following is a true statement about assessing blood pressure by palpation?
- A. Only the diastolic blood pressure can be assessed through palpation.
- B. The palpation technique is most useful for infants and small children.
- C. Hypertension is a common condition that might need to be assessed through blood pressure palpation.
- D. Only the systolic blood pressure can be assessed through palpation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When assessing blood pressure by palpation, it is important to note that only the systolic blood pressure can be determined accurately using this method. Diastolic blood pressure cannot be reliably assessed through palpation. The palpation technique is particularly useful in situations where traditional blood pressure measurement methods are challenging, such as in infants, small children, or individuals with low blood pressure that is difficult to hear. Hypertension, a common condition characterized by elevated blood pressure, is typically assessed using auscultation rather than palpation. Therefore, the correct statement is that only the systolic blood pressure can be assessed through palpation.
Which client does the nurse recognize as having the highest increased risk of developing breast cancer?
- A. a 68-year-old client with dense breasts
- B. a 34-year-old client pregnant with her first child
- C. an obese client with a body mass index of 30
- D. a client with two first-degree relatives with breast cancer
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Family history with two first-degree relatives significantly increases breast cancer risk more than age, pregnancy, or obesity.
Clonazepam has been prescribed for the client, and the nurse teaches the client about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching is necessary?
- A. If I experience slurred speech, it will disappear in about 8 weeks.
- B. My drowsiness will decrease over time with continued treatment.
- C. I should take my medicine with food to decrease stomach problems.
- D. I can take my medicine at bedtime if it tends to make me feel drowsy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine. Clients who experience signs/symptoms of toxicity with the administration of clonazepam exhibit slurred speech, sedation, confusion, respiratory depression, hypotension, and eventually coma. Some drowsiness may occur, but it will decrease with continued use. The medication may be taken with food to decrease gastrointestinal irritation. The medication may be taken at bedtime if drowsiness does occur. Slurred speech indicates toxicity and should be reported immediately, not expected to disappear in 8 weeks.
A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?
- A. Elevated fibrinogen level
- B. Prolonged PT
- C. Elevated platelet count
- D. Depressed d-dimer level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.