Nokea
The nurse in an ambulatory care clinic takes a client's blood pressure (BP) in the left arm; it is 200/118 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Notify the primary health care provider.
- B. Inquire about the presence of kidney disorders.
- C. Check the client's blood pressure in the right arm.
- D. Recheck the pressure in the same arm within 30 seconds.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a high BP reading is noted, the nurse takes the pressure in the opposite arm to see if the blood pressure is elevated in one extremity only. The nurse would also recheck the blood pressure in the same arm but would wait at least 2 minutes between readings. The nurse would inquire about the presence of kidney disorders that could contribute to the elevated blood pressure. The nurse would notify the primary health care provider because immediate treatment may be required, but this would not be done without obtaining verification of the elevation.
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The nurse performs a neurovascular assessment on a client with a newly applied cast. The nurse should determine that there is a need for close observation and a need for follow-up if which is noted?
- A. Palpable pulses distal to the cast
- B. Capillary refill greater than 6 seconds
- C. Blanching of the nail bed when it is depressed
- D. Sensation when the area distal to the cast is pinched
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To assess for adequate circulation, the nail bed of each finger or toe is depressed until it blanches, and then the pressure is released. This is known as capillary refill time. Optimally, the color will change from white to pink rapidly (less than 3 seconds). If this does not occur, the toes or fingers will require close observation and follow-up. Palpable pulses and sensations distal to the cast are expected. However, if pulses could not be palpated or if the client complained of numbness or tingling, the primary health care provider should be notified.
While preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication, the nurse notes that the medication is incompatible with the IV solution. Which intervention should the nurse implement to assure the client's safety?
- A. Ask the provider to prescribe a compatible IV solution.
- B. Start a new IV catheter for the incompatible medication.
- C. Collaborate with the provider for a new administration route.
- D. Flush tubing before and after administering the medication with normal saline.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When giving a medication intravenously, if the medication is incompatible with the IV solution, the tubing is flushed before and after the medication with infusions of normal saline to prevent in-line precipitation of the incompatible agents. Starting a new IV, changing the solution, or changing the administration route is unnecessary because a simpler, less risky, viable option exists.
The client is prescribed sotalol 80 mg orally twice daily. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Palpitations
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Difficulty swallowing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sotalol is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent that may be prescribed to treat chronic angina pectoris. Adverse effects include palpitations, bradycardia, an irregular heartbeat, difficulty breathing, signs of heart failure, and cold hands and feet. Gastrointestinal disturbances, anxiety and nervousness, and unusual tiredness and weakness can also occur. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not adverse effects of this medication.
The nurse is administering magnesium sulfate to a client experiencing severe preeclampsia. What intervention should the nurse implement during the administration of magnesium sulfate for this client?
- A. Schedule a daily ultrasound to assess fetal movement.
- B. Schedule a nonstress test every 4 hours to assess fetal well-being.
- C. Assess the client's temperature every 2 hours because the client is at high risk for infection.
- D. Assess for signs and symptoms of labor since the client's level of consciousness may be altered.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant and anticonvulsant. Because of the sedative effect of the magnesium sulfate, the client may not perceive labor. Daily ultrasounds are not necessary for this client. A nonstress test may be done, but not every 4 hours. This client is not at high risk for infection.
The client states the need to use three pillows under the head and upper torso at night to be able to breathe comfortably while sleeping. The nurse documents that the client is experiencing which clinical finding?
- A. Orthopnea
- B. Dyspnea at rest
- C. Dyspnea on exertion
- D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dyspnea is a subjective complaint that can range from an awareness of breathing to physical distress and does not necessarily correlate with the degree of heart failure. Dyspnea can be exertional or at rest. Orthopnea is a more severe form of dyspnea, requiring the client to assume a 'three-point' position while upright and use pillows to support the head and upper torso at night. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is a severe form of dyspnea occurring suddenly at night because of rapid fluid reentry into the vasculature from the interstitium during sleep.