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The nurse in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague's assignment. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse
- B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
- C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
- D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Communicating the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse is the most appropriate action to take in this scenario. Reporting to the charge nurse follows proper protocol and ensures privacy compliance. This option allows for addressing the issue internally within the healthcare setting, maintaining confidentiality, and following the chain of command. Sending an email to facility administration (Choice B) might be premature without internal investigation and could potentially bypass the immediate supervisor who is responsible for addressing such issues. Writing an anonymous complaint to a professional website (Choice C) and posting a comment about the action on a staff discussion board (Choice D) are not professional or effective ways to address the situation, as they do not ensure proper handling of the breach of privacy within the organization.
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A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
- C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
- D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or any other medications that can increase the risk of bleeding without consulting their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that demonstrate understanding of warfarin therapy and its potential side effects. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain the effectiveness of warfarin, taking medication at the same time every day ensures consistent therapeutic levels, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding, which can be a side effect of warfarin therapy.
A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?
- A. Testicular examination
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Fecal occult blood
- D. Prostate-specific antigen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.
A nurse in a mental health unit is preparing to terminate the nurse-client relationship with a client who no longer requires care. Which concept should the nurse and client discuss in the termination phase of the relationship?
- A. Loss
- B. Autonomy
- C. Confidentiality
- D. Accountability
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the termination phase of a nurse-client relationship, discussing 'loss' is crucial to help the client understand and process the end of the therapeutic relationship and any emotional impact. This discussion can aid in closure and transitioning out of the professional relationship. 'Autonomy' refers to the client's right to make decisions about their care, which is important throughout the relationship but not specifically in the termination phase. 'Confidentiality' is essential for maintaining trust but is not the primary focus during termination. 'Accountability' involves being answerable for one's actions, which is important in nursing practice but not a central topic in the termination phase of the relationship.
While providing care to a group of patients, which patient should the nurse prioritize seeing first?
- A. A patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea
- B. A bedridden patient with a reddened area on the buttocks who needs to be turned
- C. A patient on bed rest with renal calculi who needs to go to the bathroom
- D. A patient post-knee surgery who needs range of motion exercises
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea first. This patient is at higher risk for deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged bed rest, which can lead to a life-threatening embolus. Chest pain and dyspnea could also indicate a potential pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. The other patients, while requiring care, do not present with symptoms that suggest an immediate life-threatening situation, making them lower priority at this time. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it addresses a potentially critical condition that requires immediate attention.
A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding 'stronger pain medications.' What initial action is most important for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction.
- B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration.
- C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema.
- D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important initial action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. This assessment helps evaluate the severity of the infiltration and the circulation in the affected arm. Asking about past history of drug abuse or addiction (Choice A) is not the priority when addressing acute arm pain and infiltration. Compressing the infiltrated tissue (Choice C) may exacerbate the pain and is not recommended as the first step. Evaluating the extent of ecchymosis (Choice D) is not as critical as assessing the circulation in the affected arm, which is better addressed by measuring pulse volume and capillary refill.