The nurse instructs a preoperative client about the proper use of an incentive spirometer. What result should the nurse use to determine that the client is using the incentive spirometer effectively?
- A. Cloudy sputum
- B. Shallow breathing
- C. Unilateral wheezing
- D. Productive coughing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Incentive spirometry helps reduce atelectasis, open airways, stimulate coughing, and help mobilize secretions for expectoration, via vital client participation in recovery. Cloudy sputum, shallow breathing, and wheezing indicate that the incentive spirometry is not effective because they point to infection, counterproductive depth of breathing, and bronchoconstriction, respectively.
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A client diagnosed with myxedema reports having experienced a lack of energy, cold intolerance, and puffiness around the eyes and face. The nurse plans care knowing that these clinical manifestations are caused by a lack of production of which hormones? Select all that apply.
- A. Thyroxine (T4)
- B. Prolactin (PRL)
- C. Triiodothyronine (T3)
- D. Growth hormone (GH)
- E. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
- F. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: Although all of these hormones originate from the anterior pituitary, only T3 and T4 are associated with the client's symptoms. Myxedema results from inadequate thyroid hormone levels (T3 and T4). Low levels of thyroid hormone result in an overall decrease in the basal metabolic rate, affecting virtually every body system and leading to weakness, fatigue, and a decrease in heat production. A decrease in LH results in the loss of secondary sex characteristics. A decrease in ACTH is seen in Addison's disease. PRL stimulates breast milk production by the mammary glands, and GH affects bone and soft tissue by promoting growth through protein anabolism and lipolysis.
While preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication, the nurse notes that the medication is incompatible with the IV solution. Which intervention should the nurse implement to assure the client's safety?
- A. Ask the provider to prescribe a compatible IV solution.
- B. Start a new IV catheter for the incompatible medication.
- C. Collaborate with the provider for a new administration route.
- D. Flush tubing before and after administering the medication with normal saline.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When giving a medication intravenously, if the medication is incompatible with the IV solution, the tubing is flushed before and after the medication with infusions of normal saline to prevent in-line precipitation of the incompatible agents. Starting a new IV, changing the solution, or changing the administration route is unnecessary because a simpler, less risky, viable option exists.
The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone transsphenoidal surgery for a pituitary adenoma. In the postoperative period, which information should the nurse provide to the client to minimize the risk for surgery-related injury?
- A. Cough and deep breathe hourly.
- B. Nasal packing will be removed after 48 hours.
- C. Report frequent swallowing or postnasal drip.
- D. Acetaminophen is prescribed for severe postsurgical headache.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client should report frequent swallowing or postnasal drip or nasal drainage after transsphenoidal surgery because it could indicate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. The client should deep breathe, but coughing is contraindicated because it could cause increased intracranial pressure. The surgeon removes the nasal packing placed during surgery, usually after 24 hours. The client should also report severe headache because it could indicate increased intracranial pressure.
The client states the need to use three pillows under the head and upper torso at night to be able to breathe comfortably while sleeping. The nurse documents that the client is experiencing which clinical finding?
- A. Orthopnea
- B. Dyspnea at rest
- C. Dyspnea on exertion
- D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dyspnea is a subjective complaint that can range from an awareness of breathing to physical distress and does not necessarily correlate with the degree of heart failure. Dyspnea can be exertional or at rest. Orthopnea is a more severe form of dyspnea, requiring the client to assume a 'three-point' position while upright and use pillows to support the head and upper torso at night. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is a severe form of dyspnea occurring suddenly at night because of rapid fluid reentry into the vasculature from the interstitium during sleep.
The nurse performs an assessment on a client newly diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse expects to note which early manifestations of the disease? Select all that apply.
- A. Fatigue
- B. Anorexia
- C. Weakness
- D. Low-grade fever
- E. Joint deformities
- F. Joint inflammation
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,F
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic, progressive, systemic inflammatory autoimmune disease process that primarily affects the synovial joints. Early manifestations include fatigue, anorexia, weakness, joint inflammation, low-grade fever, and paresthesia. Joint deformities are late manifestations.
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