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The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with R/O SLE. Which assessment data observed by the nurse support the diagnosis of SLE?
- A. Pericardial friction rub and crackles in the lungs.
- B. Muscle spasticity and bradykinesia.
- C. Hirsutism and clubbing of the fingers.
- D. Somnolence and weight gain.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pericardial friction rub and lung crackles indicate serositis, common in SLE. Spasticity, hirsutism, and somnolence suggest other conditions.
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The client in the HCP's office has a red, raised rash covering the forearms, neck, and face and is experiencing extreme itching which is diagnosed as an allergic reaction to poison ivy. Which discharge instructions should the nurse teach?
- A. Tell the client never to scratch the rash.
- B. Instruct the client in administering IM Benadryl.
- C. Explain how to take a steroid dose pack.
- D. Have the client wear shirts with long sleeves and high necks.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A steroid dose pack reduces inflammation and itching in poison ivy reactions. Never scratching is unrealistic, IM Benadryl is HCP-administered, and clothing is preventive.
The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client should be assessed first?
- A. The client diagnosed with SLE who is complaining of chest pain.
- B. The client diagnosed with MS who is complaining of pain at a '10.'
- C. The client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis who has dysphagia.
- D. The client diagnosed with GB syndrome who can barely move his toes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chest pain in SLE may indicate pericarditis or pleuritis, potentially life-threatening, requiring immediate assessment. Severe pain, dysphagia, and toe weakness are less acute.
The client is diagnosed with Multi Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS). Which is the most appropriate goal for the nurse to write when planning the client's care?
- A. The client will maintain vital signs within normal limits during the next 24 hours.
- B. The client's urine output will be maintained to achieve output of 600 mL in the next 24 hours.
- C. The client will have elevated ALT, AST, and GGT liver enzymes within the next 24 hours.
- D. The client's blood glucose reading will be 200 to 240 mg/dL for the next 24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Maintaining normal vital signs is a broad, achievable goal in MODS. Urine output is specific, elevated enzymes are undesirable, and high glucose is not a goal.
The client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the emergency department with a sudden exacerbation of motor weakness. Which assessment data indicate the client is experiencing a cholinergic crisis?
- A. The serum assay of circulating acetylcholine receptor antibodies is increased.
- B. The client's symptoms improve when administering a cholinesterase inhibitor.
- C. The client's blood pressure, pulse, and respirations improve after IV fluid.
- D. The Tensilon test does not show improvement in the client's muscle strength.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cholinergic crisis (overdose of cholinesterase inhibitors) shows no improvement with Tensilon, unlike myasthenic crisis. Antibody levels, symptom improvement, and vital signs are not specific.
The client is prescribed a prick epicutaneous test to determine the cause of hypersensitivity reactions. Which result indicates the client is hypersensitive to the allergen?
- A. The client complains of shortness of breath.
- B. The skin is dry, intact, and without redness.
- C. The pricked blood tests positive for allergens.
- D. A pruritic wheal and erythema occur.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A pruritic wheal and erythema at the prick site indicate a positive allergic response. Shortness of breath is systemic, dry skin is negative, and blood tests are separate.