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The nurse is assessing a 42-year-old client with cancer. He has lost 1 lb in 4 weeks. He is taking ondansetron (Zofran) for nausea. He has a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C). The fever is indicative of:
- A. Inadequate nutrition.
- B. New resistance to current antiemetic therapy.
- C. Expected response to chemotherapy treatment.
- D. Infection.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A fever of 101°F in a cancer patient, especially during chemotherapy, is most likely indicative of infection, which requires prompt evaluation due to immunosuppression.
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Appropriate nursing diagnoses for a client with hypothyroidism would include which of the following?
- A. Risk for injury (corneal abrasion) related to incomplete closure of the eyelid.
- B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to hypermetabolism.
- C. A clinical evidence related to diarrhea.
- D. Activity intolerance related to fatigue associated with the disorder.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypothyroidism causes fatigue due to slowed metabolism, making activity intolerance a relevant nursing diagnosis. The other options are more associated with hyperthyroidism or unrelated conditions.
Which assessment is most important for a client receiving mannitol?
- A. Blood pressure.
- B. Urine output.
- C. Pain level.
- D. Pupil response.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Urine output is critical to monitor for mannitol's diuretic effect in reducing intracranial pressure.
A client with vasospastic disorder (Raynaud's phenomenon) is scheduled for sympathectomy. This surgery is performed:
- A. In the early stages of the disease to prevent further circulatory disturbances
- B. When the disease is controlled by medication
- C. When the client is unable to control stress-related vasospasm
- D. When all other treatment alternatives have failed
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sympathectomy, which severs sympathetic nerves to reduce vasospasm, is a last-resort treatment for Raynaud's when all other options (medications, lifestyle changes) fail. It is not performed early, when controlled, or solely for stress-related vasospasm.
The nurse has just admitted a 35-year-old female client who has a serum vitamin B12 concentration of 800 pg/mL. Which of the following laboratory findings should cue the nurse to focus the client history assessment on specific drug or alcohol use?
- A. Total bilirubin, 0.3 mg/dL.
- B. Serum creatinine, 0.5 mg/dL.
- C. Hemoglobin, 16 g/dL.
- D. Folate, 1.5 ng/mL.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A serum vitamin B12 level of 800 pg/mL is within the normal range (200–900 pg/mL), but a folate level of 1.5 ng/mL is low (normal: 2.7–17 ng/mL). Low folate levels can be associated with chronic alcohol use, as alcohol impairs folate absorption and metabolism. The nurse should assess the client's history for alcohol use, as this may contribute to the folate deficiency. The other lab values (bilirubin, creatinine, hemoglobin) are normal and do not suggest drug or alcohol use.
Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for Buerger's disease?
- A. A 29-year-old male with a 14-year history of cigarette smoking
- B. A 38-year-old female who is taking birth control pills
- C. A 54-year-old female with adult onset diabetes
- D. A 65-year-old male with atherosclerosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Buerger's disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is strongly associated with heavy tobacco use, particularly in young males. A 29-year-old male with a 14-year smoking history is at greatest risk. Birth control pills, diabetes, and atherosclerosis are not primary risk factors for Buerger's disease.