Nokea
The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively after a femoral popliteal bypass. The upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood. The nurse's first action should be to
- A. Wrap the leg with elastic bandages
- B. Apply pressure at the bleeding site
- C. Reinforce the dressing and elevate the leg
- D. Remove the dressings and re-dress the incision
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario where the upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood post-femoral popliteal bypass, the nurse's first action should be to apply pressure at the bleeding site. Applying pressure is essential to control hemorrhage and prevent further blood loss.
Choice A is incorrect as wrapping the leg with elastic bandages would not address the immediate issue of controlling the bleeding.
Choice C is incorrect because reinforcing the dressing and elevating the leg should come after controlling the bleeding.
Choice D is incorrect as removing the dressings and re-dressing the incision should only be done after the bleeding is under control to prevent excessive blood loss.
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The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius)
- C. Diffuse macular rash
- D. Muscle tenderness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A high fever, such as 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius), in a client with infective endocarditis indicates that the infection may not be responding to the antibiotics and requires immediate medical evaluation. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically associated with the ineffectiveness of antibiotic therapy in infective endocarditis.
The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
- A. Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities
- B. Exercise to reduce weight
- C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
- D. Exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most important instruction for a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis regarding exercise is to engage in weight-bearing activities. Weight-bearing exercises are crucial in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis-related fractures. Choice B is incorrect because the primary focus should be on bone health rather than weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding all exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture would limit physical activity, which is essential for overall health. Choice D is incorrect as while strengthening muscles is beneficial, weight-bearing activities directly impact bone health in osteoporosis.
A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is:
- A. difference in the intake and output
- B. changes in the mucous membranes
- C. skin turgor
- D. weekly weight
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a client with altered renal function, monitoring fluid balance is crucial. Weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the visits as it reflects cumulative changes in the body's fluid status. Changes in intake and output (Choice A) can provide valuable information, but weekly weight is a more direct measure of overall fluid retention or loss. Changes in mucous membranes (Choice B) and skin turgor (Choice C) can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less reliable indicators in this context.
An 85-year-old client complains of generalized muscle aches and pains. What should be the nurse's first action?
- A. Assess the severity and location of the pain
- B. Obtain an order for an analgesic
- C. Reassure the client that this is not unusual for his age
- D. Encourage the client to increase activity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the severity and location of the pain. This is crucial because understanding the nature of the pain will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate pain management plan. Choice B is incorrect because administering analgesics should come after assessing the pain to ensure the right medication is given. Choice C is incorrect because dismissing the pain as a normal part of aging without proper assessment could overlook underlying issues. Choice D is incorrect as increasing activity without understanding the cause of pain may exacerbate the client's condition.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy
- B. Encourage the client to perform deep breathing exercises
- C. Raise the head of the bed
- D. Check the client's oxygen saturation level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's oxygen saturation level first. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of dyspnea and determining the necessity for oxygen therapy. Administering oxygen therapy without knowing the current oxygen saturation level can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Encouraging deep breathing exercises and raising the head of the bed are important interventions, but assessing the oxygen saturation level takes precedence in managing dyspnea in a client with COPD.