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The nurse is assessing a client for a possible transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which of the following assessment findings suggests that the client is experiencing a TIA?
- A. Impaired muscle coordination
- B. Respiratory distress
- C. Severe headache
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client with a TIA may experience impaired muscle coordination or paralysis on one side. Respiratory distress and severe headache are not associated with TIA. Nausea and vomiting is not a usual symptom of TIA.
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A client has tension headaches. The nurse recommends massage as a treatment for tension headaches. How does massage help clients with tension headaches?
- A. Reduces hypotension
- B. Increases appetite
- C. Relaxes muscles
- D. Relieves migraines
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Massaging relaxes tense muscles, causes local dilation of blood vessels, and relieves headache. However, this approach is not likely to help a client with migraine or cluster headaches. Massage is not offered to clients with tension headaches to increase their appetite or reduce hypotension.
A client has been found unresponsive at home for an undetermined period of time. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is suspected, and the family is demanding a clot buster be used to restore functioning. The nurse knows that successful use of tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) in a client with CVA requires which factor(s) to be true? Select all that apply.
- A. Symptoms no longer evolving
- B. Presence of an ischemic stroke
- C. Used concurrently with heparin therapy
- D. Administered intramuscularly for faster response
- E. Administered within 3 hours of onset of symptoms
- F. Administered for hemorrhagic strokes
Correct Answer: B,E
Rationale: TPA is a thrombolytic agent that can limit neurologic${{content}} neurologic deficits if given IV within 3 hours of onset of an ischemic CVA. Waiting for symptoms to stabilize (no longer evolving) may take days and would not be appropriate for the use of TPA. TPA is not used in conjunction with other anticoagulants and would never be used to treat a hemorrhagic stroke (promotes more bleeding).
A client has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA) and presents with carotid bruits. Which is the priority action to be taken by the nurse, following a bilateral carotid endarterectomy?
- A. Encourage deep breathing and coughing.
- B. Observe for facial swelling.
- C. Anticipate need for endotracheal intubation.
- D. Resume antilipemic drugs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Surgical approach to the neck area can result in swelling and blockage of the airway. This is especially significant with bilateral carotid endarterectomy. The nurse must be observant and prepared for immediate intubation if the airway becomes obstructed. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing is not significant because general anesthesia is not routine. Resuming drugs for hyperlipidemia is not a priority in the acute postoperative period.
A family member brings a 76-year-old client to the clinic, stating that the client has had two transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) in the past week. The health care provider orders carotid angiography, and the report reveals that the carotid artery has been narrowed by atherosclerotic plaques. What treatment option(s) does the nurse expect the health care provider to offer this client to increase blood flow to the brain? Select all that apply.
- A. Balloon angioplasty of the carotid artery followed by stent placement
- B. Removal of the carotid artery
- C. Percutaneous transluminal coronary artery angioplasty
- D. Carotid endarterectomy
- E. Administration of tissue plasminogen activator
Correct Answer: A,D
Rationale: If narrowing of the carotid artery by atherosclerotic plaques is the cause of the TIAs, a carotid endarterectomy (surgical removal of atherosclerotic plaque) could be performed. A balloon angioplasty of the carotid artery, a procedure similar to a percutaneous transluminal coronary artery angioplasty, may be performed alternatively to dilate the carotid artery and increase blood flow to the brain, followed by stent placement. The other options are not options to increase blood flow through the carotid artery to the brain.
A female client who complains of recurring headaches, accompanied by increased irritability, photophobia, and fatigue is asked to track the headache symptoms and occurrence on a calendar log. Which is the best nursing rationale for this action?
- A. Cluster headaches can cause severe debilitating pain.
- B. Migraines often coincide with menstrual cycle.
- C. Tension headaches are easier to treat.
- D. Headaches are the most common type of reported pain.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Changes in reproductive hormones as found during the menstrual cycle can be a trigger for migraine headaches and may assist in the management of the symptoms. Cluster headaches can cause severe pain, but this is not the reason for tracking. Tension headaches can be managed, but this is not associated with a monthly calendar. Headaches are common, but that is not the reason for tracking.