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The nurse is assessing a client in the third trimester with suspected gestational diabetes. What symptom is most concerning?
- A. Increased thirst and urination.
- B. Fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL.
- C. Weight gain of 1 pound in a week.
- D. Proteinuria of +1.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased thirst and urination. In gestational diabetes, increased thirst and urination can indicate uncontrolled blood sugar levels, which can harm the fetus. This symptom suggests hyperglycemia and requires immediate intervention.
B: Fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range for pregnancy and not concerning.
C: Weight gain of 1 pound in a week can be normal in the third trimester and not specific to gestational diabetes.
D: Proteinuria of +1 is more concerning for preeclampsia rather than gestational diabetes.
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A nurse is teaching the parents of a newborn how to care for their child's uncircumcised penis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Retract the foreskin until you feel resistance.
- B. Use a cotton swab to clean under the foreskin.
- C. Apply petroleum jelly to the foreskin.
- D. Wash the penis once per day with soup and water.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because washing the penis once per day with soap and water is the appropriate way to care for an uncircumcised penis. This helps maintain good hygiene and prevents infections. Retracting the foreskin forcefully (Choice A) can cause injury and should not be done until the child is older. Using a cotton swab (Choice B) can leave fibers behind and may cause irritation. Applying petroleum jelly (Choice C) is unnecessary and can increase the risk of infections. Therefore, washing the penis with soap and water daily is the most effective and safe method for caring for an uncircumcised penis.
A client is to receive Pergonal (menotropins) injections for infertility prior to in-vitro fertilization. Which of the following is the expected action of this medication?
- A. Stimulation of ovulation
- B. Prolongation of the luteal phase
- C. Promotion of cervical mucus production
- D. Suppression of menstruation fertilization. Which of the following is the expected action of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stimulation of ovulation. Pergonal contains menotropins, which are hormones that stimulate the ovaries to produce eggs. During in-vitro fertilization, the goal is to retrieve multiple eggs for fertilization, making ovulation stimulation crucial.
Explanation for incorrect choices:
B: Prolongation of the luteal phase - Pergonal does not affect the luteal phase, which occurs after ovulation.
C: Promotion of cervical mucus production - Pergonal does not directly influence cervical mucus production.
D: Suppression of menstruation - Pergonal does not suppress menstruation but rather induces ovulation.
A client at 12 weeks' gestation asks about the purpose of nuchal translucency testing. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. It screens for fetal anemia.
- B. It detects neural tube defects.
- C. It screens for chromosomal abnormalities.
- D. It confirms gestational age.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because nuchal translucency testing is primarily used to screen for chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome, in the fetus. This test measures the thickness of the fluid-filled space at the back of the baby's neck. It is typically done between 11 and 14 weeks of pregnancy. This testing helps to assess the risk of genetic conditions in the fetus. Option A is incorrect because nuchal translucency testing does not screen for fetal anemia. Option B is incorrect because it does not detect neural tube defects. Option D is incorrect because it does not confirm gestational age.
Nutrition is an integral part of the Bradley Method. What important nutrition advice is taught in this method?
- A. Only eat low-fat foods.
- B. Increase protein to 100 g per day.
- C. Do not eat dairy because it causes food allergies.
- D. Eat a low-protein diet.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the Bradley Method emphasizes the importance of increasing protein intake to support a healthy pregnancy. Protein is essential for fetal development and maternal health. It is recommended to consume around 100g of protein per day during pregnancy. Adequate protein intake helps in the growth of the baby and helps to maintain the health of the mother.
Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Only eat low-fat foods - This is incorrect as fat is also important for a healthy pregnancy and should not be eliminated entirely.
C: Do not eat dairy because it causes food allergies - Dairy is a good source of calcium and other essential nutrients during pregnancy, so this advice is not recommended.
D: Eat a low-protein diet - This is incorrect as protein is crucial for the development of the baby and overall health during pregnancy.
A nurse is providing nutritional guidance to a client who is pregnant and follows a vegan diet. The client asks the nurse which foods she should eat to ensure adequate calcium intake. The nurse should instruct the client that which of the following foods has the highest amount of calcium?
- A. ½ cup cubed avocado
- B. 1 large banana
- C. 1 medium potato
- D. 1 cup cooked broccoli
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup cooked broccoli. Broccoli is a good source of calcium, with approximately 70 mg per cup. This is higher than the other options provided. Avocado, banana, and potato are not significant sources of calcium compared to broccoli. Broccoli is a suitable choice for a pregnant vegan to ensure adequate calcium intake. It is important for the client to consume a variety of plant-based calcium-rich foods to meet their nutritional needs during pregnancy.