Nokea
The nurse is assessing a client with Buerger's disease. The nurse should determine if the client is experiencing:
- A. Thickening of the intima and media of the artery
- B. Inflammation and fibrosis of arteries, veins, and nerves
- C. Vasospasm lasting several minutes
- D. Pain, pallor, and pulselessness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Buerger's disease is characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of arteries, veins, and nerves, leading to occlusion and ischemia. This distinguishes it from atherosclerosis (intimal thickening), Raynaud's (vasospasm), or acute arterial occlusion (pain, pallor, pulselessness).
You may also like to solve these questions
The client with an intestinal obstruction continues to have acute pain even though the nasoenteric tube is patent and draining. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. Reassure the client that the nasoenteric tube is functioning.
- B. Assess the client for a rigid abdomen.
- C. Administer an opioid as ordered.
- D. Reposition the client on the left side.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent acute pain despite a patent nasoenteric tube suggests a complication like peritonitis, indicated by a rigid abdomen, which requires immediate assessment. Reassurance, opioids, or repositioning may delay addressing a serious issue. CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
What would be the nurse's best response to the client's expressed feelings of isolation as a result of having hepatitis?
- A. Don't worry. It's normal to feel that way.'
- B. Your friends are probably afraid of contracting hepatitis from you.'
- C. I'm sure you're imagining that!'
- D. Tell me more about your feelings of isolation.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to express feelings (D) fosters therapeutic communication and addresses emotional needs. Dismissing feelings (A, C) or assuming others' fears (B) is non-therapeutic and unhelpful.
A client with a history of hypertension and peripheral vascular disease underwent an aortobifemoral bypass graft. Preoperative medications included pentoxifylline (Trental); metoprolol (Toprol XL); and furosemide (Lasix). On postoperative day 1, the 12 noon vital signs are: Temperature 37.2°C; heart rate 132 beats per minute; respiratory rate 20; blood pressure 126/78. Urine output is 50 to 70 mL/hour. The hemoglobin and hematocrit are stable. Using the SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation) technique for communication, the nurse recommends to the primary care provider:
- A. Continues the pentoxifylline
- B. Increases the I.V. fluids
- C. Restarts the metoprolol
- D. Resumes the furosemide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SBAR: Situation€”postop day 1, heart rate 132 bpm. Background€”aortobifemoral bypass, history of hypertension, on metoprolol preop. Assessment€”tachycardia suggests inadequate beta-blockade, other vitals stable. Recommendation€”restart metoprolol to control heart rate and blood pressure. Pentoxifylline is less urgent, fluids are adequate (urine output normal), and furosemide may cause dehydration.
A client on hemodialysis reports muscle cramps. The nurse should:
- A. Increase dialysate flow.
- B. Check electrolyte levels.
- C. Administer a diuretic.
- D. Encourage ambulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Muscle cramps may indicate electrolyte imbalances, requiring lab assessment.
A nurse is caring for a client with lung cancer who develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which laboratory finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Serum sodium of 128 mEq/L.
- B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L.
- C. Serum calcium of 11.0 mg/dL.
- D. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: SIADH causes water retention, diluting serum sodium, so a low sodium level (128 mEq/L) is expected due to the inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone.