Nokea
The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Begin client education about positive inotropic medications.
- B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
- C. Prepare the client for an emergency cardiac catheterization.
- D. Monitor serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care.
Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.
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A client who is scheduled to have surgery in two hours tells the nurse, 'My doctor was here and used a lot of big words about the surgery, then asked me to sign a paper.' What action should the nurse take?
- A. Reassure the client that pre-surgery anxiety is a normal experience
- B. Explain the surgery in clear terms that the client can understand
- C. Call the surgeon back to clarify the information with the client
- D. Redirect the client's thoughts by teaching relaxation techniques
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to explain the surgery to the client in clear terms that they can understand. This will help alleviate the client's anxiety and ensure they are well-informed about the procedure they are about to undergo. Choice A is incorrect because while reassurance is important, it does not address the client's specific concern about understanding the surgery. Choice C is not the initial step; the nurse should first attempt to clarify the information themselves. Choice D is not the priority when the client is seeking clarification about the surgery.
A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Sedimentation rate
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Anti-CCP antibodies
- D. Activated Clotting Time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti-CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti-CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.
After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client's left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?
- A. Right hand
- B. Right forearm
- C. Left hand
- D. Right subclavian
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.
A 12-year-old client who had an appendectomy two days ago is receiving 0.9% normal saline at 50 ml/hour. The client's urine specific gravity is 1.035. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage popsicles and fluids of choice
- B. Evaluate postural blood pressure measurements
- C. Obtain a specimen for urinalysis
- D. Assess bowel sounds in all quadrants
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging fluids helps address dehydration and potentially high urine specific gravity, which is often related to inadequate fluid intake. In this scenario, the client may be at risk of dehydration due to the appendectomy and the high urine specific gravity. Encouraging popsicles and fluids of choice can help increase fluid intake and improve hydration status. The other options are not the priority at this time. Postural blood pressure measurements may be relevant for assessing fluid status but are not the immediate action needed. Obtaining a specimen for urinalysis and assessing bowel sounds are not the priority actions based on the client's condition.
A male client, admitted to the mental health unit for a somatoform disorder, becomes angry because he cannot have his pain medication. He demands that the nurse call the healthcare provider and threatens to leave the hospital. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in seclusion per unit guidelines
- B. Administer a PRN prescription for lorazepam (Ativan)
- C. Call security to help ensure staff and client safety
- D. Ask what other methods he uses to deal with pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize ensuring safety. When a client becomes aggressive and threatens to leave, calling security is crucial to help maintain a safe environment for both staff and the client. Placing the client in seclusion (choice A) is not the appropriate initial action as it may escalate the situation further. Administering lorazepam (choice B) should not be the first response to behavioral issues. Asking about other pain management methods (choice D) is not the immediate priority when safety is at risk.