Nokea
The nurse is assessing an adult female client for hypovolemia.
- A. Hematocrit 55%
- B. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L
- C. Urine specific gravity 1.016
- D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated hematocrit (55%) indicates hemoconcentration due to fluid loss in hypovolemia. Potassium (B) and BUN (D) are within normal ranges, and urine specific gravity (C) is normal, not elevated as expected in hypovolemia.
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A 9-year-old child was in the garage with his father, who was repairing a lawnmower. Some gasoline ignited and caused an explosion. His father was killed, and the child has split-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of his upper body, face, neck, and arms. All of the following nursing diagnoses are included on his care plan. Which of these nursing diagnoses should have top priority during the first 24-48 hours postburn?
- A. Pain related to tissue damage from burns
- B. Potential for infection related to contamination of wounds
- C. Fluid volume deficit related to increased capillary permeability
- D. Potential for impaired gas exchange related to edema of respiratory tract
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: (A, B, C) These answers are all correct; however, maintenance of airway is the top priority. Persons burned about the face and neck during an explosion are also likely to suffer burns of the respiratory tract, which can lead to edema and respiratory arrest.
An alcoholic client who is completing the inpatient segment of a substance abuse program was placed on disulfiram (Antabuse) drug therapy. What should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?
- A. If disulfiram is taken and alcohol ingested, the client experiences nausea, vomiting and elevated blood pressure.
- B. Disulfiram is most effective when prescribed as late as possible in a recovery program.
- C. Disulfiram works on the desensitization principle.
- D. The effects of disulfiram can be triggered by alcohol 5 days to 2 weeks after the drug is discontinued.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When alcohol is ingested with disulfiram therapy, the client experiences nausea, vomiting, and a potentially serious drop in blood pressure. Disulfiram is most successful when used early in the recovery process while the individual makes major lifestyle changes necessary for long-term recovery. Disulfiram works on the classical conditioning principle. The effects of disulfiram can be felt when alcohol is ingested 1-2 weeks after disulfiram is discontinued.
A 67-year-old man had a physical examination prior to beginning volunteer work at the hospital. A routine chest x-ray demonstrated left ventricular hypertrophy. His blood pressure was 180/110. He is 45 lb overweight. His diet is high in sodium and fat. He has a strong family history of hypertension. The client is placed on antihypertensive medication; a low-sodium, low-fat diet; and an exercise regimen. On his next visit, compliance would best be determined by:
- A. A blood pressure reading of 130/70 with a 5-lb weight loss
- B. No side effects from antihypertensive medication and an accurate pill count
- C. No evidence of increased left ventricular hypertrophy on chest x-ray
- D. Serum blood levels of the antihypertensive medication within therapeutic range
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure within acceptable range best demonstrates compliance, but weight loss cannot be accomplished without adherence to medication, diet, and exercise. Absence of side effects does not indicate compliance with medication. Pill counts can be misleading because the client can alter pill counts prior to visit. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not an accurate measure of compliance because hypertrophy frequently does not decrease even with pharmacological management. Therapeutic blood levels measure the drug level at the time of the test. There is no indication of compliance several days before testing.
A 60-year-old woman exhibits forgetfulness, emotional lability, confusion, and decreased concentration. She has been unable to perform activities of daily living without assistance. After a thorough medical evaluation, a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease was made. An appropriate nursing intervention to decrease the anxiety of this client would include:
- A. Allowing the client to perform activities of daily living as much as possible unassisted
- B. Confronting confabulations
- C. Reality testing
- D. Providing a highly stimulating environment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This answer is correct. The more the client is able to control her daily routine, the less anxiety she will experience. This answer is incorrect. Confrontation tends to increase anxiety. This answer is incorrect. Reality testing is an assessment tool. It does not decrease anxiety. This answer is incorrect. A highly stimulating environment increases distractibility and anxiety.
The client is admitted with a diagnosis of abruptio placenta. Which diagnostic test is most likely to be ordered?
- A. Ultrasound
- B. Fetal heart monitoring
- C. Both A and B
- D. Neither A nor B
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ultrasound can confirm placental separation in abruptio placenta and fetal heart monitoring assesses for distress due to hypoxia. Both tests are critical for diagnosis and management.