Nokea
The nurse is assessing the client who is 24 hours post—GI hemorrhage. The findings include BUN of 40 mg/dL and serum creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL. Which action should be taken by the nurse?
- A. Immediately call the health care provider to report these results.
- B. Monitor urine output, as this may be a sign of kidney failure.
- C. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
- D. Encourage the client to limit his or her dietary protein intake.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A. No treatment is required; it is unnecessary to call the HCP. B. If acute kidney failure is present, both the BUN and creatinine would be elevated. C. The findings should be documented. The BUN can be elevated after a significant GI hemorrhage from the breakdown of blood proteins. The protein breakdown releases nitrogen that is then converted to urea. D. Limiting protein intake in the presence of healthy kidneys is unnecessary.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is preparing to care for the client immediately after a Whipple procedure. The nurse should plan to include which action?
- A. Monitor the blood glucose levels
- B. Administer enteral feedings
- C. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 mL of saline
- D. Assist with bowel elimination within 8 hours of surgery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. The Whipple procedure induces insulin-dependent diabetes because the proximal pancreas is resected. Thus, the blood glucose levels should be monitored closely starting immediately after surgery. B. Parenteral (not enteral) feedings are the method of choice for providing nutrition immediately after surgery. C. The NG tube is strategically placed during surgery and should not be irrigated without a surgeon’s order. With an order, gentle irrigation with 10 to 20 mL of NS is appropriate. D. Since this surgery reshapes the GI tract, the client will not have peristalsis and bowel movements for several days.
The nurse is caring for the client with acute diverticulitis. Which finding should most prompt the nurse to consider that the client has developed an intestinal perforation?
- A. White blood cells (WBCs) elevated
- B. Temperature of 101°F (38.3°C)
- C. Bowel sounds are absent
- D. Reports intense abdominal pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A. Elevated WBCs are a symptom of acute diverticulitis. B. Increased temperature is a symptom of acute diverticulitis. C. Clients with intestinal perforation develop paralytic ileus. Bowel sounds would be absent. D. Abdominal pain is a symptom of acute diverticulitis that may worsen with intestinal perforation, but the most significant finding would be absent bowel sounds.
The nurse completes discharge teaching for the client after a small bowel resection for Crohn’s disease. The nurse determines that more education is needed when overhearing which statement made by the client to the client’s spouse?
- A. “I’m so glad I’ll never need surgery again for Crohn’s disease.”
- B. “I’ll need to get a new scale so I can continue to monitor my weight.”
- C. “I’ll likely need to be on hydrocortisone if an exacerbation occurs.”
- D. “I will probably have to take vitamin supplements all of my life.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. The nurse should determine that the client needs additional education with this statement. Crohn’s disease can occur throughout the GI tract. Surgery in one area of the GI tract will not prevent the disease from recurring in another area. This recurrence can result in the need for further surgery. B. Clients with Crohn’s disease will always need to monitor their weight. C. Most likely, the client will need some type of glucocorticoid medication such as hydrocortisone to treat a future exacerbation. D. Clients will need vitamins to maintain adequate nutrient levels, since inflamed areas of the GI tract do not absorb nutrients well.
Which disease is the client diagnosed with GERD at greater risk for developing?
- A. Hiatal hernia.
- B. Gastroenteritis.
- C. Esophageal cancer.
- D. Gastric cancer.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic GERD increases the risk of esophageal cancer, particularly adenocarcinoma, due to prolonged acid exposure causing Barrett's esophagus, a precancerous condition. Hiatal hernia is a risk factor for GERD, not a consequence, and gastroenteritis and gastric cancer are less directly linked.
The client diagnosed with IBD is prescribed total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the client's glucose level.
- B. Administer an oral hypoglycemic.
- C. Assess the peripheral intravenous site.
- D. Monitor the client's oral food intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: TPN, high in dextrose, can cause hyperglycemia, so monitoring glucose levels is essential, especially in IBD patients with potential metabolic stress. Oral hypoglycemics are inappropriate, TPN uses central lines, and oral intake is typically minimal.