Nokea
The nurse is assessing the client with an 8-centimeter AAA. Which finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Report of persistent nagging pain in the upper anterior chest
- B. Systolic bruit palpated over the upper abdomen
- C. Edema of the face and neck with distended neck veins
- D. A pulsating mass in the mid to upper abdomen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Throbbing or pulsating in the abdomen is the sign most indicative of an AAA. Chest pain, edema, and neck vein distention are associated with thoracic aneurysms, and a bruit is auscultated, not palpated.
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The client newly diagnosed with HF has an ejection fraction of 20%. Which criteria should the nurse use to evaluate the client’s readiness for discharge to home? Select all that apply.
- A. There is a scale in the client’s home
- B. The client started ambulating 24 hours ago
- C. The client is receiving furosemide IV 20 mg bid
- D. A smoking cessation consult is scheduled for 2 days after discharge
- E. A home-care nurse is scheduled to see the client 3 days after discharge
Correct Answer: A;B;E
Rationale: The nurse should evaluate: A) A scale to monitor fluid status; B) Ambulation to confirm functional capability; E) Home-care nurse visit within 3 days for support. IV furosemide (C) should be oral before discharge, and smoking cessation (D) should start before discharge.
The nurse is assessing the client following an inferior-septal wall MI. Which potential complication should the nurse further explore when noting that the client has JVD and ascites?
- A. Left-sided heart failure
- B. Pulmonic valve malfunction
- C. Right-sided heart failure
- D. Ruptured septum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Right-sided HF produces venous congestion in the systemic circulation, resulting in JVD and ascites (from vascular congestion in the GI tract). Left-sided HF causes pulmonary congestion, pulmonic valve issues cause murmurs, and a ruptured septum causes shock and murmurs, none of which match the findings.
The client is discovered to have a popliteal aneurysm. Because of the aneurysm, the nurse should closely monitor the client for which associated problem?
- A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
- B. Ischemia in the lower limb
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Raynaud’s phenomenon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A popliteal aneurysm (located in the space behind the knee) may cause ischemia in the leg distal to the aneurysm due to thrombus forming inside the aneurysm and potential emboli. Other options are unrelated to popliteal aneurysms.
The nurse assesses the client at a vascular clinic after being treated with pentoxifylline for 6 weeks. The nurse determines that pentoxifylline has been effective when noting that the client has which finding?
- A. A decrease in lower-extremity edema
- B. No symptoms of withdrawal after quitting smoking
- C. A venous ulcer on the ankle that has decreased in size
- D. The ability to walk a longer distance without claudication
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pentoxifylline (Trental) is thought to act by improving capillary blood flow and is prescribed to decrease intermittent claudication. Effects are usually seen in 2 to 4 weeks. Edema, smoking withdrawal, and venous ulcers are not treated by pentoxifylline.
The client who had a synthetic valve replacement a year ago is hospitalized with unstable angina. IV heparin and nitroglycerin infusions were started, but then nitroglycerin was discontinued after the client’s pain resolved. The HCP prescribes to start oral warfarin 5 mg at 1900 hours. Which is the nurse’s best action?
- A. Administer the warfarin as prescribed
- B. Call the HCP to question starting warfarin
- C. Discontinue heparin and then give warfarin
- D. Hold warfarin until heparin is discontinued
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Both heparin and warfarin (Coumadin) are anticoagulants, but their actions are different. Oral warfarin requires 3 to 5 days to reach effective levels. It is usually begun while the client is still on heparin. Warfarin should be given as prescribed for a synthetic valve to prevent thromboembolism.