Nokea
The nurse is assessing the elderly client first thing in the morning. The client is confused and sleepy. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Determine if the client received a sedative last night.
- B. Allow the client to continue to sleep and do not disturb.
- C. Encourage the client to ambulate in the room with assistance.
- D. Notify the health-care provider about the client's status.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sedatives are a common cause of morning confusion in the elderly; determining recent administration guides next steps.
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While providing home care to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is asked how long diuretics must be taken. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. As you urinate more, you will need less medication to control fluid.'
- B. You will have to take this medication for about a year.'
- C. The medication must be continued so the fluid problem is controlled.'
- D. Please talk to your health care provider about medications and treatments.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The medication must be continued so the fluid problem is controlled.' This is the most therapeutic response and gives the client accurate information.
An adult receives NPH insulin at 7:00 A.M. When is a hypoglycemic reaction most apt to develop?
- A. Mid morning
- B. Mid afternoon
- C. During the evening
- D. During the night
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: NPH insulin peaks 6-12 hours after administration (1:00 P.M.-7:00 P.M.), making mid-afternoon the likely time for hypoglycemia.
The client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) is receiving Lioresal (baclofen), a muscle relaxant. Which information should the nurse teach the client/family?
- A. The importance of tapering off medication when discontinuing medication.
- B. Baclofen may cause diarrhea, so the client should take antidiarrheal medication.
- C. The client should not be allowed to drive alone while taking this medication.
- D. The need for follow-up visits to obtain a monthly white blood cell count.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Baclofen requires tapering to prevent withdrawal symptoms, like seizures, per FDA warnings. Diarrhea, driving, or WBC counts are not primary concerns.
Keflex 250 mg PO q6h is ordered for an adult. The nurse notes that the client's history indicates that she has an allergy to penicillin. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse?
- A. Notify the physician
- B. Observe the client carefully after giving the medication
- C. Administer the Keflex IV instead of PO
- D. Ask the client to describe the reaction that she had to penicillin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: There is often a cross-allergy between penicillin and cephalosporins like Keflex. The nurse should first determine the type of reaction to assess if Keflex is safe.
The client is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. Which health-care provider order should the nurse anticipate in treating this condition?
- A. Subcutaneous iron dextran.
- B. Intramuscular vitamin B12.
- C. Intravenous folic acid.
- D. Oral thiamine medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pernicious anemia results from B12 deficiency; IM B12 is standard treatment due to absorption issues. Iron, folic acid, or thiamine do not address the primary cause.