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The patient’s significant other is terrified by the prospect o f removing life-sustaining treatments from the patient and asks why anyone would do that. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. “It is to save you money so you won’t have such a large financial burden.”
- B. “It will preserve limited resources for the hospital so oatbhirebr.c pomat/tieesnt ts may benefit from them.”
- C. “It is to discontinue treatments that are not helping and may be very uncomfortable.”
- D. “We have done all we can for your wife and any more treatment would be futile.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it explains that the decision to remove life-sustaining treatments is based on the fact that these treatments are not helping the patient and may actually be causing discomfort. This rationale aligns with the principle of beneficence, which emphasizes doing good and avoiding harm to the patient. It also respects the patient's autonomy by prioritizing their well-being and quality of life.
Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on financial reasons rather than the patient's best interest. Choice B is incorrect because it prioritizes hospital resources over individual patient care. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity and may come across as insensitive to the significant other's concerns.
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The nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who is experiencing pain that is continuous and severe. How should the nurse schedule the administration of opioid pain medications?
- A. Give around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics.
- B. Provide PRN doses of medication whenever the patient requests.
- C. Offer enough pain medication to keep the patient sedated.
- D. Suggest analgesic doses that provide pain control without decreasing respiratory rate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics. This is the best approach for managing continuous and severe pain in a terminally ill patient. By providing scheduled doses of opioid pain medications, the nurse ensures a consistent level of pain relief, preventing peaks and troughs in pain control. This approach also helps in preventing the patient from experiencing unnecessary suffering.
Choice B (PRN doses) may lead to inadequate pain control as the patient may wait too long before requesting medication. Choice C (keeping the patient sedated) is not appropriate as the goal is pain management, not sedation. Choice D (balancing pain control and respiratory rate) is important, but the priority should be on effectively managing the pain first.
A patient with end-stage heart failure is experiencing consaibdirebr.caobmle/te dsty spnea. What is the appropriate pharmacological management of this symptom ?
- A. Administration of 6 mg of midazolam and initiation of a continuous midazolam infusion.
- B. Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initia tion of a continuous morphine infusion.
- C. Hourly increases of the midazolam (Versed) infusion b y 100% dose increments.
- D. Hourly increases of the morphine infusion by 100% dose increments.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initiation of a continuous morphine infusion. Morphine is the preferred pharmacological management for severe dyspnea in end-stage heart failure due to its potent analgesic and anxiolytic properties.
Step-by-step rationale:
1. Morphine is a potent opioid that helps relieve dyspnea by reducing anxiety, decreasing respiratory drive, and improving overall comfort.
2. The initial IV bolus of 5 mg provides rapid relief of dyspnea.
3. Initiating a continuous morphine infusion ensures sustained relief of dyspnea.
4. Midazolam (choice A) is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiety, but it is not the first-line treatment for dyspnea in this scenario.
5. Increasing the midazolam (choice C) or morphine (choice D) infusions by 100% dose increments hourly is not appropriate as
A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a motor vehicle collision is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of:
- A. Peritoneal lavage.
- B. Abdominal ultrasonography.
- C. Nasogastric (NG) tube placement.
- D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal ultrasonography. This is because ultrasonography is a non-invasive imaging technique that can quickly evaluate for internal injuries such as organ damage or bleeding in patients with blunt abdominal trauma. It is a rapid and effective diagnostic tool to assess the extent of injury and guide further management.
Peritoneal lavage (A) is an invasive procedure used in trauma settings to detect intra-abdominal bleeding but is not typically used for teaching purposes. Nasogastric tube placement (C) is used for decompression and drainage in certain conditions but is not relevant for assessing abdominal trauma. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D) is not typically used as the initial imaging modality for acute trauma due to time constraints and its limited availability in emergency settings.
A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?
- A. Has the client experienced constipation recently?
- B. Did the client miss any doses of the medication?
- C. How long has the client been taking the medication?
- D. Does the client use any tobacco products?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Assessing how long the client has been taking clonidine is crucial as drowsiness is a common side effect that typically improves over time as the body adjusts to the medication. This information helps determine if the drowsiness is a temporary side effect or a more concerning issue.
Choice A (constipation) is not directly related to drowsiness as a side effect of clonidine. Choice B (missed doses) may contribute to drowsiness but is not the primary assessment priority. Choice D (tobacco use) is not directly related to clonidine-induced drowsiness.
A patient with terminal cancer reports a sudden onset of severe pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Assess the patient’s pain using a standardized pain scale.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of prescribed analgesic.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider about the patient’s pain.
- D. Reposition the patient to enhance comfort.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the patient’s pain using a standardized pain scale. The first step is to assess the severity and nature of the pain to determine the appropriate intervention. This allows the nurse to understand the pain intensity and characteristics, which guides the choice of analgesic and dosing. Administering analgesics (B) without proper assessment can lead to inappropriate treatment. Notifying the healthcare provider (C) is important but assessing the pain should come first. Repositioning the patient (D) may provide comfort but addressing the pain directly is the priority.