The nurse is assisting a physician in performing a bronchoscopy. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing a vasovagal response as evidence by the client's
- A. hypertension.
- B. bronchodilation.
- C. increase in heart rate (HR).
- D. decrease in heart rate (HR).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A vasovagal response causes bradycardia due to vagal nerve stimulation during procedures like bronchoscopy.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to manage fluid volume overload in a client with heart failure? Select all that apply.
- A. Administer diuretics as prescribed
- B. Monitor daily weights
- C. Restrict fluid intake to 500 mL per day
- D. Assess lung sounds for crackles
- E. Encourage high-sodium diet
- F. Assess lung sounds for rhonchi
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: Diuretics reduce fluid overload. Daily weights monitor fluid status. C: Incorrect - 500 mL/day is too restrictive; 1.5-2 L is typical. D: Correct - Crackles indicate pulmonary edema. E: Incorrect - High-sodium diets worsen fluid retention. F: Incorrect - Rhonchi are not specific to fluid overload.
The nurse cares for a client with the below tracing on the electrocardiogram. The client is unresponsive and without a pulse. The nurse should implement which priority treatment based on the tracing
- A. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
- B. Perform immediate defibrillation
- C. Initiate intravenous (IV) access
- D. Review the client's most recent electrolyte levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pulseless ventricular fibrillation or tachycardia requires immediate defibrillation to restore rhythm.
The nurse assesses a client three hours following cardiac surgery. Assessment findings were a blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg, jugular venous distention, and muffled heart sounds. The nurse anticipates that this client will need an immediate
- A. thoracentesis.
- B. pericardiocentesis.
- C. arthrocentesis.
- D. paracentesis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These findings suggest cardiac tamponade, requiring pericardiocentesis to remove fluid compressing the heart.
The nurse reviews the client's continuous telemetry monitor and observes the following. As the nurse reviews the client's current medications, which prescribed medication is most likely causing this tracing? See the image below.
- A. losartan
- B. nitroglycerin transdermal patch
- C. enalapril
- D. verapamil
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause bradycardia or heart block, potentially leading to abnormal ECG tracings.
The nurse is caring for a client receiving a continuous infusion of diltiazem who has the below tracing on the electrocardiogram (ECG). On assessment, the client has irregular peripheral pulses, an S3 heart sound, and 2+ pedal edema. The nurse should plan to take which priority action? See the image below.
- A. Assess the client for chest pain
- B. Perform a 12-lead electrocardiogram
- C. Stop the infusion
- D. Obtain an immediate troponin level
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: S3 and edema suggest heart failure, possibly exacerbated by diltiazem's negative inotropic effect. Stopping the infusion is the priority.
Nokea