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The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?
- A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Remove oxygen while the client is eating.
- C. Ensure the client wears a nasal cannula instead of a face mask.
- D. Maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.
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A client has a new prescription for propranolol. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor heart rate daily.
- C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Avoid consuming dairy products.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate daily. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can lower heart rate and blood pressure, so it is essential to monitor heart rate regularly to detect any signs of bradycardia, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods is not specifically required with propranolol. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products with propranolol.
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?
- A. Apical pulse
- B. Serum calcium level
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the healthcare provider should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are used to lower blood pressure, making it essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure it is within the appropriate range for administration. Checking the apical pulse (choice A) is not the priority before administering a calcium channel blocker, as the focus should be on blood pressure. Serum calcium level (choice B) is not directly related to the administration of calcium channel blockers for hypertension. Respiratory rate (choice D) is not the primary parameter to check before administering a calcium channel blocker in this scenario.
The nurse is assisting with the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days
- B. Increased urination at night
- C. Mild shortness of breath on exertion
- D. Decreased appetite and fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days is concerning in a client with heart failure as it can indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. This finding requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Increased urination at night (choice B) may be due to various reasons like diuretic use and is not an immediate concern. Mild shortness of breath on exertion (choice C) is expected in clients with heart failure and may not require immediate reporting. Decreased appetite and fatigue (choice D) are common symptoms in heart failure but are not as urgent as sudden weight gain.
The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?
- A. Serum troponin
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum albumin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.
The healthcare provider is reinforcing dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease who has been prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The healthcare provider should advise the client to choose which food item?
- A. Whole milk
- B. Oatmeal with fresh fruit
- C. Fried chicken
- D. Bacon and eggs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is the correct choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet. Oatmeal is a heart-healthy option that is low in cholesterol and saturated fats. Fresh fruits are also a good source of essential nutrients and fiber. Choices A, C, and D are not suitable for a low-cholesterol diet. Whole milk, fried chicken, bacon, and eggs are high in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can be detrimental to individuals with coronary artery disease.