The nurse is assisting the primary health care provider (PHCP) with an elective electrical cardioversion for a chronic atrial fibrillation client. Prior to this procedure, the nurse should perform which action?
- A. Remove the client's peripheral vascular access device.
- B. Review the client's risk factors for post-procedure bleeding.
- C. Ensure that a water-seal chest tube drainage device is readily available.
- D. Verify that the informed consent has been obtained by the health care provider (HCP).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Informed consent is required for elective cardioversion, a procedure with risks like thromboembolism.
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The following scenario applies to the next 6 items
The client is a 72-year-old male who presents to the emergency department with increasing
shortness of breath over the past two days that gets worse when he is lying flat in bed at night.
Item 1 of 6
History And Physical Nurses' Notes Flow Sheet
0700: The client is a 72-year-old male who presents to the emergency department with increasing shortness of breath over the past two days that gets worse when he is lying flat in bed at night. He states, "I feel like I can't catch my breath," and he had to sleep in a recliner. He reports a 4 lb weight gain over the last week and increasing fatigue. The client is alert and oriented but is using his accessory muscles to breathe. He reports feeling short of breath, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. He has bilateral pedal edema (+2), bilateral crackles heard upon auscultation, and jugular vein distention noted on his assessment. The
the client has a medical history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, and a prior myocardial infarction. He was diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) two years ago. Current home medications include lisinopril, metoprolol succinate, furosemide, and atorvastatin.
For each medication, choose the most likely option for drug classification and mechanism of action for heart failure: Spironolactone, Sacubitril/Valsartan, Dapagliflozin
- A. Spironolactone: MRA, Blocks aldosterone effects
- B. Sacubitril/Valsartan: ARNI, Blocks RAAS and neprilysin
- C. Dapagliflozin: SGLT2 inhibitor, Causes osmotic diuresis
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: Spironolactone: MRA (Mineralocorticoid Receptor Antagonist) blocks aldosterone, reducing fluid retention. Sacubitril/Valsartan: ARNI blocks RAAS and neprilysin, improving vasodilation and diuresis. Dapagliflozin: SGLT2 inhibitor causes osmotic diuresis, reducing fluid overload.
The nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with acute pericarditis. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the primary health care provider (PHCP) will prescribe?
- A. isoniazid
- B. colchicine
- C. allopurinol
- D. warfarin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Colchicine is used to reduce inflammation in acute pericarditis, often combined with NSAIDs.
The nurse assesses a client three hours following cardiac surgery. Assessment findings were a blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg, jugular venous distention, and muffled heart sounds. The nurse anticipates that this client will need an immediate
- A. thoracentesis.
- B. pericardiocentesis.
- C. arthrocentesis.
- D. paracentesis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These findings suggest cardiac tamponade, requiring pericardiocentesis to remove fluid compressing the heart.
The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with congestive heart failure demonstrating ineffective coping. The nurse should plan to
- A. recommend a support group.
- B. review dietary items low in sodium.
- C. review the client's vaccination status.
- D. recommend the client take St. John's Wort.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A support group addresses ineffective coping by providing emotional support and coping strategies.
The following scenario applies to the next 1 items
The nurse in the intensive care unit (ICU) is caring for a 41-year-old male client.
Item 1 of 1
Progress Notes
1544: Received client to ICU immediately following percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty followed by stenting via right femoral artery. Notified primary health care provider about client status. Awaiting orders.
The nurse contacts the primary healthcare provider for admission orders
For each potential order, click to specify whether the potential order is indicated or not indicated for the client post-percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty.
- A. Head of the bed elevated up to 30 degrees
- B. Elevate the right leg on a pillow
- C. Continuous cardiac monitoring
- D. Serial troponin levels
- E. Keep the client NPO
- F. Obtain serum glucose levels every two hours
Correct Answer: A,C,D,F
Rationale: A: Indicated - Elevating the head of the bed promotes comfort and reduces cardiac workload. B: Not indicated - Elevating the leg is not standard post-angioplasty unless specified for complications. C: Indicated - Continuous monitoring detects arrhythmias post-procedure. D: Indicated - Serial troponin levels monitor for myocardial injury. E: Not indicated - NPO status is typically temporary and not required post-procedure unless specified. F: Indicated - Glucose monitoring is crucial for diabetic patients or those at risk post-procedure.
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