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A patient is experiencing severe pain, despite receiving pain medication for the past 24 hours. The patients wife expresses concern about this to the nurse. Which response by the nurse would be most empowering to the patients family?
- A. Explain that the doctor is an expert on pain medication and that the current level ofm edication is the best.
- B. Recommend that the family members take turns massaging the patients feet todistract from the pain.
- C. Encourage the family to request that the physician evaluate the patients pain control.
- D. Ask the family to wait another 24 hours to see whether the patients pain level will go down.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it empowers the family to take action by requesting a physician evaluation of the patient's pain control. This step is crucial in ensuring that the patient's pain is adequately managed. By involving the physician, the family can advocate for the patient's needs and potentially explore alternative pain management strategies.
Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses the family's concerns and fails to address the need for further evaluation. Choice B may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate pain control. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests delaying action, which could lead to prolonged suffering for the patient.
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The nurse is caring for a patient whose ventilator settings i nclude 15 cm H O of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). The nurse understands that although beneficial, PEEP may result in what possible problem?
- A. Fluid overload secondary to decreased venous return.
- B. High cardiac index secondary to more efficient ventric ular function.
- C. Hypoxemia secondary to prolonged positive pressure a t expiration.
- D. Low cardiac output secondary to increased intrathoracic pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D - Low cardiac output secondary to increased intrathoracic pressure):
1. PEEP increases intrathoracic pressure, which can impede venous return to the heart.
2. Impaired venous return reduces preload, leading to decreased cardiac output.
3. Decreased cardiac output can result in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation.
4. Therefore, PEEP may cause low cardiac output due to increased intrathoracic pressure.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A. Fluid overload is not directly related to PEEP but more to fluid administration or kidney function.
B. High cardiac index is unlikely as PEEP can decrease cardiac output.
C. Hypoxemia is not a direct result of PEEP but may occur due to other factors like inadequate ventilation or oxygenation settings.
The nurse is caring for 80-year-old patient who has been tr eated for gastrointestinal bleeding. The family has agreed to withhold or withdraw additional treatment. The patient has a written advance directive specifying requests. The directive notes that the patient wants food and fluid to be continued and to be made physically comfortable. Th e nurse anticipates that several orders may be written to comply with this request, including which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- A. “Do not resuscitate.”
- B. Change antibiotic to a less expensive medication.
- C. Discontinue tube feeding.
- D. Stop any further blood transfusions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Do not resuscitate." In this scenario, the patient's advance directive specifies a desire for comfort measures and continuation of food and fluids. A DNR order aligns with this directive by respecting the patient's wish to avoid aggressive life-saving measures. This choice prioritizes the patient's autonomy and quality of life. Other options (B, C, D) are not aligned with the patient's wishes. Changing antibiotics or stopping blood transfusions may be unrelated to the patient's comfort or food/fluid preferences. Discontinuing tube feeding goes against the directive's request for food and fluid continuation.
The patient is admitted with complaints of general malaise and fatigue, along with a decreased urinary output. The patient’s urinalysis shows coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria. The nurse determines that the patient has:
- A. acute kidney injury from a prerenal condition.
- B. acute kidney injury from postrenal obstruction.
- C. intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis.
- D. a urinary tract infection.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis. The patient's symptoms of general malaise, fatigue, decreased urinary output, along with the presence of coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria in the urinalysis indicate kidney damage. Acute tubular necrosis is a common cause of acute kidney injury characterized by damage to the renal tubules, leading to impaired kidney function. The presence of granular casts and hematuria suggests tubular injury and bleeding within the kidney. Choices A and B are incorrect as they refer to prerenal and postrenal causes of kidney injury, respectively, which do not align with the patient's symptoms and urinalysis findings. Choice D is incorrect as a urinary tract infection would typically present with different symptoms and urinalysis findings.
Intrapulmonary shunting refers to what outcome?
- A. Alveoli that are not perfused.
- B. Blood that is shunted from the left side of the heart to t he right and causes heart failure.
- C. Blood that is shunted from the right side of the heart to the left without oxygenation.
- D. Shunting of blood supply to only one lung.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct:
1. Intrapulmonary shunting refers to blood bypassing the normal oxygenation process in the lungs.
2. Choice C describes blood being shunted from the right side of the heart (deoxygenated blood) to the left side without oxygenation, leading to systemic circulation without oxygenation.
3. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately describe intrapulmonary shunting as they focus on other concepts like alveolar perfusion, heart failure, and unilateral lung blood supply, respectively.
A nurse who has been recently hired to manage the nursing staff of the ICU is concerned at the lack of evidence-based practice she sees among the staff. Which of the following would be the best step for her to take to promote incorporating evidence into clinical practice?
- A. Only hire nurses certified in critical care nursing.
- B. Leave copies of several different nursing journals in the nurses lounge.
- C. Demonstrate to the staff the best nursing-related search terms to use in Google orYahoo!
- D. Introduce the staff to the PubMed search engine and assign them topics to researchon it.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because introducing the staff to the PubMed search engine and assigning them topics to research on it is the most effective way to promote evidence-based practice. PubMed is a reputable database that contains a vast collection of peer-reviewed articles and research studies, making it a reliable source for evidence. By assigning specific topics, the nurse can ensure that the staff is focusing on relevant and current information, fostering a deeper understanding of evidence-based practice.
Choice A is incorrect because certification in critical care nursing does not guarantee a commitment to evidence-based practice. Choice B is not as effective as it relies on passive exposure to journals rather than active engagement with specific research topics. Choice C is not the best option as using general search terms on search engines like Google or Yahoo may lead to unreliable or outdated information.