Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client in active labor. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent fetal heart rate decelerations?
- A. Discourage the client from walking.
- B. Increase the rate of the oxytocin infusion.
- C. Monitor the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes.
- D. Encourage upright or side-lying maternal positions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Side-lying and upright positions such as walking, standing, and squatting can improve venous return and encourage effective uterine activity. There are many nursing actions to prevent fetal heart rate decelerations without necessitating surgical intervention.
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When caring for a client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis, the nurse should be alert for which manifestations of myasthenic crisis? Select all that apply.
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Increased diaphoresis
- C. Decreased lacrimation
- D. Bowel and bladder incontinence
- E. Absent cough and swallow reflex
- F. Sudden marked rise in blood pressure
Correct Answer: B,D,E,F
Rationale: Myasthenic crisis is caused by undermedication or can be precipitated by an infection or sudden withdrawal of anticholinesterase medications. It may also occur spontaneously. Clinical manifestations include increased diaphoresis, bowel and bladder incontinence, absent cough and swallow reflex, sudden marked rise in blood pressure because of hypoxia, increased heart rate, severe respiratory distress and cyanosis, increased secretions, increased lacrimation, restlessness, and dysarthria.
The nurse plans care for a client requiring intravenous (IV) fluids and electrolytes understanding that which are findings that correlate with the need for this type of therapy? Select all that apply.
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Bounding pulse rate
- C. Chronic kidney disease
- D. Isolated syncope episodes
- E. Rapid, weak, and thready pulse
- F. Abnormal serum and urine osmolality levels
Correct Answer: A,E,F
Rationale: Abnormal assessment findings of major body systems offer clues to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Rapid, weak, and thready pulse is an assessment abnormality found with fluid and electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia. Abnormal serum and urine osmolality are laboratory tests that are helpful in identifying the presence of or risk of fluid imbalances. Isolated episodes of syncope are not indicators for intravenous therapy unless fluid and electrolyte imbalances are identified. A bounding pulse rate is a manifestation of fluid volume excess; therefore, IV fluids are not indicated. Clients with chronic kidney disease experience the inability of the kidneys to regulate the body's water balance; fluid restrictions may be used.
A client is scheduled to have a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). What information about the balloon-tipped catheter should nurse plan to include when providing client education concerning the procedure?
- A. A mesh-like device within the catheter will be inflated causing it to spring open.
- B. The catheter will be used to compress the plaque against the coronary blood vessel wall.
- C. The catheter will cut away the plaque from the coronary vessel wall using an embedded blade.
- D. The catheter will be positioned in a coronary artery to take pressure measurements in the vessel.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In PTCA, a balloon-tipped catheter is used to compress the plaque against the coronary blood vessel wall. Option 1 describes placement of a coronary stent, option 3 describes coronary atherectomy, and option 4 describes part of the process used in cardiac catheterization.
A client with significant flail chest has arterial blood gases (ABGs) that reveal a PaO2 of 68 and a PaCO2 of 51. Two hours ago the PaO2 was 82 and the PaCO2 was 44. Based on these changes, which item should the nurse assure easy access to in order to help ensure client safety?
- A. Intubation tray
- B. Injectable lidocaine
- C. Chest tube insertion set
- D. Portable chest x-ray machine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flail chest occurs from a blunt trauma to the chest. The loose segment from the chest wall becomes paradoxical to the expansion and contraction of the rest of the chest wall. The client with flail chest has painful, rapid, shallow respirations while experiencing severe dyspnea. The laboratory results indicate worsening respiratory acidosis. The effort of breathing and the paradoxical chest movement have the net effect of producing hypoxia and hypercapnia. The client develops respiratory failure and requires intubation and mechanical ventilation, usually with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP); therefore, an intubation tray is necessary. None of the other options have a direct purpose with the client's current respiratory status.
A client is scheduled for a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). The nurse explains that the procedure will have which surgical results?
- A. Proximal end of the distal stomach is anastomosed to the duodenum.
- B. Entire stomach is removed and the esophagus is anastomosed to the duodenum.
- C. Lower portion of the stomach is removed and the remainder is anastomosed to the jejunum.
- D. Antrum of the stomach is removed and the remaining portion is anastomosed to the duodenum.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the Billroth II procedure, the lower portion of the stomach is removed and the remainder is anastomosed to the jejunum. The duodenal stump is preserved to permit bile flow to the jejunum. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect descriptions.