Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client in labor with meconium-stained amniotic fluid. What is the priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen to the mother.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Prepare for potential neonatal resuscitation.
- D. Increase IV fluid rate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Meconium-stained amniotic fluid poses a risk of aspiration; preparation for neonatal resuscitation is critical.
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What is the initial action for a mother experiencing severe vaginal bleeding during labor?
- A. Monitor vital signs and provide IV fluids
- B. Position the mother on her left side
- C. Administer oxygen at 10L/min via mask
- D. Prepare for an immediate cesarean section
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering oxygen improves maternal and fetal oxygenation during significant bleeding.
A woman has been in labor for 16 hours. Her cervix is dilated
- A. The fetal presenting part is not engage
- B. The nurse would expect which malpresentation
- C. CPD (prevents presenting part form becoming engage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If a woman has been in labor for 16 hours and her cervix is not dilated, it suggests that the fetal presenting part is not engaged. Engagement refers to the descent of the fetal presenting part (usually the head) into the pelvis. When the presenting part is not engaged, it may lead to a prolonged labor as the fetus needs to descend further for labor to progress effectively. This can result in slower cervical dilation and may require interventions to help facilitate engagement, such as position changes or use of gravity-assisted techniques.
What is the most effective form of contraception for a woman who has just given birth and is breastfeeding?
- A. Oral contraceptives
- B. Copper IUD
- C. Contraceptive injections
- D. Emergency contraception
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The copper IUD is a highly effective, long-term contraception method that does not interfere with breastfeeding. Choice A is incorrect because oral contraceptives may reduce milk supply, and many types are not recommended during breastfeeding. Choice C is incorrect because contraceptive injections may not be ideal during breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect because emergency contraception is used only after unprotected sex and is not a long-term solution.
The nurse is educating a male patient on how a vasectomy works. What is the best explanation for this procedure?
- A. The procedure blocks the sperm from entering into the semen and being ejaculated.
- B. The procedure removes the testicle so that sperm are not made.
- C. The tube that carries seminal fluid is blocked, causing no semen to be ejaculated.
- D. The procedure kills all sperm so they are unable to make it to the ovulated egg.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A vasectomy involves blocking or cutting the vas deferens to prevent sperm from being ejaculated with semen, making it an effective method of contraception. Choice B is incorrect because the testicles are not removed during a vasectomy, only the vas deferens is altered. Choice C is incorrect because seminal fluid is still produced, but sperm are prevented from entering it. Choice D is incorrect because sperm are not killed, but rather prevented from mixing with semen.
A client at 34 weeks' gestation reports regular uterine contractions. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Encourage ambulation to relieve discomfort.
- B. Perform a sterile vaginal examination.
- C. Assess fetal heart rate and contraction pattern.
- D. Administer an analgesic as prescribed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing fetal heart rate and contraction pattern is crucial to evaluate for preterm labor.