Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client in labor with ruptured membranes. What finding suggests umbilical cord prolapse?
- A. Clear amniotic fluid.
- B. Variable decelerations on the fetal monitor.
- C. Contractions every 2 minutes.
- D. Maternal blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Variable decelerations on the fetal monitor. This finding suggests umbilical cord prolapse because the cord can become compressed during contractions, leading to variable decelerations. It is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention to prevent fetal distress.
A: Clear amniotic fluid is a normal finding after rupture of membranes.
C: Contractions every 2 minutes may indicate tachysystole, but not specifically cord prolapse.
D: Maternal blood pressure is not directly related to cord prolapse.
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In a 28-day menstrual cycle, when does ovulation typically occur?
- A. around day 7
- B. around day 14
- C. around day 21
- D. around day 28
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: around day 14. Ovulation typically occurs around day 14 in a 28-day menstrual cycle. This is because ovulation usually happens around 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period. This timing aligns with the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, which is around day 14. Ovulation is the release of an egg from the ovary, marking the most fertile period for conception. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because ovulation does not typically occur on day 7, day 21, or day 28 in a 28-day menstrual cycle.
A nurse is educating a prenatal client on pregnancy 140 to 90 bpm that begins with the contraction changes and her gastrointestinal system. Which and gradually returns to the normal baseline statement is correct?
- A. Because of increased saliva production during related to? pregnancy, the client should use a medium to hard
- B. Uteroplacental insufficiency toothbrush to prevent plaque.
- C. Umbilical cord compression
- D. Heartburn may be relieved by sitting up after
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Heartburn may be relieved by sitting up after. This is because during pregnancy, the growing uterus can push stomach acids upward, causing heartburn. Sitting up after eating can help prevent acid reflux by allowing gravity to keep stomach contents down.
Choice A is incorrect as increased saliva production during pregnancy is not related to toothbrush hardness. Choice B is incorrect because uteroplacental insufficiency is not related to the client's gastrointestinal system. Choice C is incorrect as umbilical cord compression is a separate issue and not related to heartburn relief.
A client at 12 weeks' gestation reports nausea and vomiting. What is the best dietary advice?
- A. Eat three large meals a day.
- B. Drink fluids with meals.
- C. Consume small, frequent meals throughout the day.
- D. Avoid protein-rich foods.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consume small, frequent meals throughout the day. This advice helps manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy by preventing an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Eating small, frequent meals helps stabilize blood sugar levels and provides a steady source of nutrients for the developing fetus. It also reduces the likelihood of triggering nausea by avoiding large meals. Drinking fluids with meals (choice B) may exacerbate symptoms by filling up the stomach too quickly. Eating three large meals a day (choice A) can lead to overeating and may worsen nausea. Avoiding protein-rich foods (choice D) is not recommended as protein is essential for fetal development and overall health during pregnancy.
A nurse is checking postpartum orders, the doctor prescribed bed rest for 6-12 h. The nurse knows this is an appropriate order if the patient had which type of anesthesia?
- A. Spinal
- B. Pudendal
- C. Epidural
- D. General
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epidural. The rationale for this is that epidural anesthesia is a regional anesthesia that numbs the lower half of the body while allowing the patient to remain conscious. Therefore, prescribing bed rest for 6-12 hours after receiving an epidural is appropriate to ensure the anesthesia wears off gradually and the patient does not experience any complications while regaining sensation and mobility.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Spinal anesthesia also numbs the lower half of the body, but it typically wears off faster than an epidural, so bed rest may not be necessary for as long.
B: Pudendal anesthesia is specific to numbing the perineum area and does not affect mobility in the same way as epidural anesthesia.
D: General anesthesia does not target a specific area of the body and does not require bed rest for 6-12 hours postpartum.
What must instructions for use of nonoxynol-9 spermicide include?
- A. Nononxynol-9 used with barrier methods increases their efficacy.
- B. When spermicide is used with condoms, it will further decrease the risk of STIs.
- C. Remove excess spermicide from the vagina within 6 hours to reduce vaginal irritation.
- D. Place the spermicide close to the opening of the vagina for maximal effectiveness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer, C, states that excess spermicide should be removed from the vagina within 6 hours to reduce vaginal irritation. This is important as leaving excess spermicide can lead to discomfort and irritation. It is a crucial instruction to ensure the user's comfort and safety.
Choice A is incorrect as nonoxynol-9 does not necessarily increase efficacy when used with barrier methods.
Choice B is incorrect because while using spermicide with condoms can reduce the risk of STIs, the statement does not specifically address the instructions for use.
Choice D is incorrect as placing the spermicide close to the vagina's opening does not guarantee maximal effectiveness and is not a critical instruction for safe use.