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The nurse is caring for a client who has just had an ankle-brachial index (ABI) test. The left arm blood pressure was 160/80 mm Hg and a palpable systolic blood pressure of the left lower extremity was 130/60 mm Hg. These findings suggest that the client has:
- A. Mild peripheral artery disease
- B. Moderate peripheral artery disease
- C. No apparent occlusion in the left lower extremity
- D. Severe peripheral artery disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ABI = ankle systolic BP ÷ arm systolic BP = 130 ÷ 160 = 0.81. An ABI of 0.8–0.9 indicates mild peripheral artery disease, suggesting some arterial narrowing. Normal ABI is 0.9–1.3, moderate is 0.5–0.8, and severe is <0.5.
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The nurse is caring for a client with angle-closure glaucoma. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate from the primary healthcare provider (PHCP)?
- A. timolol
- B. hydroxyzine
- C. phenylephrine
- D. imipramine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Timolol, a beta-blocker, reduces intraocular pressure in angle-closure glaucoma by decreasing aqueous humor production. Hydroxyzine, phenylephrine, and imipramine are not used for this condition.
The nurse is preparing a 3-year-old child for an incision and drainage of a large left leg abscess. The nurse understands which of the following types of anesthesia will be administered to the child?
- A. Peripheral nerve block
- B. Spinal anesthesia
- C. General Anesthesia
- D. Local Anesthesia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: General anesthesia is typically used for young children undergoing procedures like incision and drainage to ensure safety and comfort.
What is the earliest clinical manifestation in a client with acute disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. Severe shortness of breath.
- B. Bleeding without history or cause.
- C. Orthopnea.
- D. Hematuria.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: DIC causes widespread clotting and bleeding due to consumption of clotting factors and platelets. The earliest manifestation is often unexplained bleeding, such as petechiae or oozing from venipuncture sites. Shortness of breath, orthopnea, and hematuria are later or less specific signs.
The client is scheduled to have a kidney, ureter, and bladder (KUB) radiograph. To prepare the client for this procedure, the nurse should explain to the client that:
- A. Fluid and food will be withheld the morning of the examination.
- B. A tranquilizer will be given before the examination.
- C. An enema will be given before the examination.
- D. No special preparation is required for the examination.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A KUB radiograph requires no special preparation, as it is a non-invasive imaging test to locate renal calculi.
The physician prescribes metoclopramide hydrochloride (Reglan) for the client with hiatal hernia. The nurse plans to instruct the client that this drug is used in hiatal hernia therapy to accomplish which of the following objectives?
- A. Increase tone of the esophageal sphincter.
- B. Neutralize gastric secretions.
- C. Ease gastric emptying.
- D. Reduce secretion of digestive juices.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metoclopramide promotes gastric emptying, reducing the volume of gastric contents that can reflux in hiatal hernia.