Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client who has subclavian central venous access. Which nursing intervention is most important to prevent the spread of infection to this client?
- A. Frequent hand hygiene
- B. No artificial nails
- C. Use of chlorhexidine bath wipes
- D. Wearing personal protective equipment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Frequent hand hygiene is the most effective intervention to prevent infection in central venous access, reducing pathogen transmission. No artificial nails and chlorhexidine wipes are supportive, but hand hygiene is primary. PPE is situational.
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A diabetic client asks the nurse why she should use a diaphragm as a method of contraception instead of birth control pills. The best explanation for the use of a diaphragm is:
- A. A diaphragm will best prevent pregnancy because oral contraceptives are rendered ineffective by increased glucose levels.
- B. A diaphragm is a noninvasive method of contraception that will not alter the blood glucose levels.
- C. A diaphragm will provide intrauterine contraception by preventing implantation of the embryo.
- D. A diaphragm is a noninvasive method of contraception that prevents the egg from being released from the ovary.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A diaphragm does not affect blood glucose, unlike oral contraceptives, which can alter glycemic control. Oral contraceptives are not ineffective due to glucose levels, diaphragms do not prevent implantation or ovulation, and they are not intrauterine.
The nurse working in an extended care facility transcribes a prescription from the health care provider for a single daily dose of 150 mg of ranitidine; this is to be taken orally at bedtime for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Of the following prescriptions, which one is transcribed correctly?
- A. Ranitidine 150 mg daily by mouth
- B. Ranitidine 150 mg per os qhs
- C. Ranitidine 150 mg po qd nightly
- D. Ranitidine 150 mg PO at bedtime
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ranitidine 150 mg PO at bedtime accurately specifies the dose, route, and timing (qhs = at bedtime). Other options are less precise or redundant (e.g., ‘qd nightly’).
A graduate student, who has been studying for final exams and using energy drinks to stay awake, comes to the clinic reporting a fluttering feeling in the chest. The student is connected to the cardiac monitor that displays the rhythm in the exhibit. The nurse recognizes this as which rhythm?
- A. Atrial fibrillation
- B. Sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions
- C. Sinus rhythm with premature ventricular contractions
- D. Ventricular tachycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The fluttering feeling and irregular rhythm suggest premature atrial contractions, often triggered by stimulants like energy drinks. Atrial fibrillation shows chaotic waves, ventricular contractions have wide QRS complexes, and ventricular tachycardia is life-threatening, not matching the description.
The nurse reports that a client with a Mantoux test has an induration of 10 mm. The nurse knows that the induration indicates:
- A. Infection with the tubercle bacillus
- B. Exposure to the tubercle bacillus
- C. Questionable exposure to the tubercle bacillus
- D. No exposure to the tubercle bacillus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 10 mm induration indicates exposure to the tubercle bacillus, requiring further evaluation to determine active infection.
A father brings his 17-year-old son to a walk-in clinic. The client reports a sudden severe headache. He has a temperature of 104°F and a purple rash. What is the best action for the nurse at this time?
- A. Prepare for a throat culture
- B. Schedule him for an appointment later in the day
- C. Isolate and alert the physician immediately
- D. Obtain a urine specimen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Symptoms suggest meningococcal meningitis, a medical emergency requiring isolation and immediate physician notification.