The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV gentamicin for a gram-negative infection. Which of the following laboratory results would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
- A. Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL.
- B. Sodium 140 mEq/L.
- C. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L.
- D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL indicates renal impairment, a serious complication of gentamicin due to nephrotoxicity, requiring immediate evaluation. Options B, C, and D are normal: sodium 140 mEq/L, potassium 4.0 mEq/L, and hemoglobin 13 g/dL do not indicate complications.
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The nurse is caring for a homebound client with a urinary catheter. The client's husband states that he thinks the catheter is obstructed. Which of the following observations would confirm this suspicion?
- A. The nurse notes that the bladder is distended.
- B. The client complains of a constant urge to void.
- C. The nurse notes that the urine is concentrated.
- D. The client complains of a burning sensation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: bladder distention is one of the earliest signs of obstructed drainage tubing
A client admitted with tuberculosis asks the nurse how long he will have to take his prescription for INH. The best answer for the nurse to give the client is:
- A. It depends on the type of tuberculosis you have.'
- B. You will need to take the INH for approximately 6 months.'
- C. After about 6 weeks, the doctor will discontinue the medication.'
- D. You will remain on INH for an indefinite time period.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: INH (isoniazid) treatment for active tuberculosis typically lasts 6-9 months. Six weeks is too short, and indefinite treatment is incorrect.
Following a stroke, a client is found to have receptive aphasia. This finding is consistent with damage to:
- A. The frontal lobe
- B. The parietal lobe
- C. The temporal lobe
- D. The occipital lobe
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Receptive aphasia, difficulty understanding language, is associated with damage to the temporal lobe, specifically Wernicke's area.
A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and closed-angle glaucoma visits the clinic for a routine check-up. Which of the following medications, if ordered by the physician, should the nurse question?
- A. Propranolol (Inderal), 80 mg PO QID.
- B. Verapamil (Nifedipine), 40 mg PO TID.
- C. Tetrahydrozoline (Visine), 2 gtts OU TID.
- D. Timolol (Timoptic solution), 1 gtt OU QD.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: contraindicated; ophthalmic vasoconstrictor, contraindicated with closed angle glaucoma; use cautiously with hypertension
The nurse is preparing a client with a severe case of inflamed hemorrhoids for a rectal examination by the physician. What is the best position to place her in on the examination table?
- A. Dorsal recumbent
- B. Knee-chest
- C. Sims'
- D. Lithotomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The knee-chest position provides optimal exposure for rectal examination, minimizing discomfort with inflamed hemorrhoids.
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