Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving prescribed aspirin. Which of the following findings would indicate the client is having an adverse effect?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Venous thromboembolism
- D. Black, tarry stools
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Black, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of aspirin due to its antiplatelet and irritant properties.
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The nurse is planning care for a client with a femoral fracture who is in balanced suspension traction. Which of the following would the nurse be least likely to include in the plan of care?
- A. Use of a fracture bedpan.
- B. Checks for redness over the ischial tuberosity.
- C. Elevation of the head of bed no more than 25 degrees.
- D. Personal hygiene with a complete bed bath.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed beyond 25 degrees can disrupt traction alignment, making it least appropriate.
A client receives a thrombolytic agent. The expected outcome of this drug therapy includes:
- A. Improved cerebral perfusion
- B. Decreased vascular permeability
- C. Dissolved emboli
- D. Prevention of further cerebral hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thrombolytic agents (e.g., alteplase) dissolve existing clots, such as emboli in pulmonary embolism or arterial occlusion, restoring blood flow. They do not improve cerebral perfusion, decrease vascular permeability, or prevent cerebral hemorrhage (they increase bleeding risk).
The nurse anticipates that the client who has received epidural anesthesia is at decreased risk for a spinal headache because:
- A. A 17G needle is used.
- B. A subarachnoid injection is made.
- C. A noncutting needle is used.
- D. A faster onset occurs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Epidural anesthesia uses a noncutting needle, reducing dural puncture risk and thus lowering the incidence of spinal headache compared to spinal anesthesia.
The nurse receives emergency laboratory results for a client with chest pain and immediately informs the physician. An increased myoglobin level suggests which of the following?
- A. Cancer.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Liver disease.
- D. Myocardial damage.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Elevated myoglobin indicates myocardial damage, as it is released from injured cardiac muscle, supporting a diagnosis of MI.
A client post-inguinal herniorrhaphy reports scrotal swelling 24 hours after surgery. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a warm compress to the scrotum.
- B. Notify the surgeon.
- C. Elevate the scrotum and apply ice.
- D. Administer a diuretic as ordered.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the scrotum and applying ice is the first action to reduce scrotal swelling post-inguinal herniorrhaphy, a common postoperative finding. Warm compresses may worsen swelling, notification is needed if swelling persists, and diuretics are not indicated. CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize