Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving tacrolimus daily. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Photophobia
- C. Profuse sweating
- D. Decrease in urine output
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant medication used in the prophylaxis of organ rejection in clients receiving allogenic liver transplants. Adverse reactions and toxic effects include nephrotoxicity and pleural effusion. Nephrotoxicity is characterized by an increasing serum creatinine level and a decrease in urine output. Frequent side effects include headache, tremor, insomnia, paresthesia, diarrhea, nausea, constipation, vomiting, abdominal pain, and hypertension. None of the other options are associated with an adverse reaction to this medication.
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The nurse suspects that an air embolism has occurred when the client's central venous catheter disconnects from the intravenous (IV) tubing. The nurse immediately places the client on her or his left side in which position?
- A. High Fowler's
- B. Trendelenburg's
- C. Lateral recumbent
- D. Reverse Trendelenburg's
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If the client develops an air embolism, the immediate action is to place the client in Trendelenburg's position on the left side. This position raises the client's feet higher than the head and traps any air in the right atrium. If necessary, the air can then be directly removed by intracardiac aspiration.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with preeclampsia. When the client's condition progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia, what should the nurse's first action be?
- A. Maintain an open airway.
- B. Administer oxygen by face mask.
- C. Assess the maternal blood pressure and fetal heart tones.
- D. Administer an intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Eclampsia is characterized by the occurrence of seizures. If the client experiences seizures, it is important as a first action to establish and maintain an open airway and prevent injuries to the client. Options 2, 3, and 4 are all interventions that should be done but not initially.
The nurse is performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on a client when the client unexpectedly develops spastic muscle contractions. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
- A. Stop movement of the affected part.
- B. Massage the affected part vigorously.
- C. Notify the primary health care provider immediately.
- D. Force movement of the joint supporting the muscle.
- E. Ask the client to stand and walk rapidly around the room.
- F. Place continuous gentle pressure on the muscle group until it relaxes.
Correct Answer: A,F
Rationale: ROM exercises should put each joint through as full a range of motion as possible without causing discomfort. An unexpected outcome is the development of spastic muscle contraction during ROM exercises. If this occurs, the nurse should stop movement of the affected part and place continuous gentle pressure on the muscle group until it relaxes. Once the contraction subsides, the exercises are resumed using slower, steady movement. Massaging the affected part vigorously may worsen the contraction. There is no need to notify the primary health care provider unless intervention is ineffective. The nurse should never force movement of a joint. Asking the client to stand and walk rapidly around the room is an inappropriate measure.
A client is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. The primary health care provider has added 7 cm of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the client's ventilator settings. The nurse should assess for which expected but adverse effect of PEEP?
- A. Decreased peak pressure on the ventilator
- B. Increased rectal temperature from 98°F to 100°F
- C. Decreased heart rate from 78 to 64 beats per minute
- D. Systolic blood pressure decrease from 122 to 98 mm Hg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP improves oxygenation by enhancing gas exchange and preventing atelectasis. PEEP leads to increased intrathoracic pressure, which in turn leads to decreased cardiac output. This is manifested in the client by decreased systolic blood pressure and increased pulse (compensatory). Peak pressures on the ventilator should not be affected, although the pressure at the end of expiration remains positive at the level set for the PEEP. Fever indicates respiratory infection or infection from another source.
The nurse is preparing a client diagnosed with Graves' disease to receive radioactive iodine therapy. What information should the nurse share with the client about the therapy?
- A. After the initial dose, subsequent treatments must continue lifelong.
- B. The radioactive iodine is designed to destroy the entire thyroid gland with just one dose.
- C. It takes 6 to 8 weeks after treatment to experience relief from the symptoms of the disease.
- D. High radioactivity levels prohibit contact with family for 4 weeks after the initial treatment.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Graves' disease is also known as toxic diffuse goiter and is characterized by a hyperthyroid state resulting from hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. After treatment with radioactive iodine therapy, a decrease in the thyroid hormone level should be noted, which helps alleviate symptoms. Relief of symptoms does not occur until 6 to 8 weeks after initial treatment. Occasionally, a client may require a second or third dose, but treatments are not lifelong. This form of therapy is not designed to destroy the entire gland; rather, some of the cells that synthesize thyroid hormone will be destroyed by the local radiation. The nurse must reassure the client and family that unless the dosage is extremely high, clients are not required to observe radiation precautions. The rationale for this is that the radioactivity quickly dissipates.