The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?
- A. Administer morphine for pain relief.
- B. Encourage the client to perform isometric exercises.
- C. Position the client flat in bed.
- D. Restrict fluid intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering morphine is a priority intervention during the acute phase of myocardial infarction (MI). Morphine not only provides pain relief but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because isometric exercises can increase myocardial oxygen demand and are not recommended during the acute phase of MI. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed, not keeping the client flat, is preferred to reduce workload on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be encouraged unless contraindicated, as adequate hydration is essential for cardiac function.
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Based on the Nursing diagnosis of 'Potential for infection related to second and third degree burns,' which intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Application of topical antibacterial cream
- B. Use of careful hand washing technique
- C. Administration of plasma expanders
- D. Limiting visitors to the burned client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is B, the use of careful hand washing technique. Proper hand hygiene is essential in preventing infection, especially in individuals with compromised skin integrity like those with burns. By practicing careful hand washing, healthcare providers reduce the risk of introducing harmful pathogens to the burn wound, thus lowering the chances of infections. Choice A, application of topical antibacterial cream, is important but should follow ensuring proper hand hygiene. Choice C, administration of plasma expanders, is not directly associated with preventing burn-related infections. Choice D, limiting visitors, is significant for infection control, but ensuring proper hand hygiene outweighs this intervention in terms of priority.
When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?
- A. Recheck the radial pulse in thirty minutes
- B. Palpate the radial pulse for thirty seconds and double the rate
- C. Count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds
- D. Compare the radial pulse rate bilaterally and record the higher rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks
- B. Resume a low-fat diet
- C. Remove the bandages from the incision after 24 hours
- D. Expect significant pain for the first week
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Remove the bandages from the incision after 24 hours.' Prompt removal of bandages after 24 hours promotes proper wound healing and reduces the risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding driving for 2 weeks may not be universally necessary post-cholecystectomy. Choice B is incorrect because while a low-fat diet is recommended after surgery, it is not directly related to incision care. Choice D is incorrect because while pain is common post-surgery, stating 'significant pain for the first week' may not apply to all patients, potentially causing unnecessary anxiety.
What are the final factors that contribute to blood pressure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Heart rate
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Peripheral resistance
- D. Neuroendocrine hormones
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Neuroendocrine hormones play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by influencing factors like fluid balance, blood volume, and vessel constriction. While heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are important factors affecting blood pressure, the final parameters that directly produce blood pressure are influenced by neuroendocrine hormones. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are involved in the regulation of blood pressure but are not the final parameters that directly produce it.
The nurse is assessing a client with hyperkalemia. Which finding is consistent with this electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- C. Constipation
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to muscle weakness due to the effect of high potassium levels on muscle function. Decreased deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia; instead, hyperreflexia or increased reflexes may be observed. Constipation (Choice C) is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia. Hypotension (Choice D) is also not a typical finding in hyperkalemia; instead, hypertension or normal blood pressure may be present.