Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of a pulmonary embolism who is receiving Warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for:
- A. Bleeding
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Fever
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Warfarin, an anticoagulant, increases bleeding risk, requiring monitoring for signs like epistaxis or hematuria. Hypertension, tachypnea, and fever are not primary concerns.
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A client with a history of atrial flutter is admitted with complaints of dizziness. The nurse should give priority to:
- A. Monitoring heart rate
- B. Administering pain medication
- C. Monitoring respiratory rate
- D. Administering diuretics
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atrial flutter causes rapid heart rates, which can lead to dizziness due to reduced cardiac output, so monitoring heart rate is the priority.
Which of the following is a late sign associated with oral cancer?
- A. Warmth
- B. Odor
- C. Pain
- D. Ulcer with flat edges
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pain is a late sign of oral cancer, often occurring as the tumor invades deeper tissues or nerves. Early signs include ulcers or white/red patches, while warmth and odor are less specific, and flat-edged ulcers are not typical.
Which of the following is not a step in primary assessment of a client presenting to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle accident?
- A. Assessing and maintaining a patent airway
- B. Obtaining vital signs
- C. Using the Glasgow Coma Scale to check responsiveness
- D. Controlling bleeding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primary assessment in trauma follows the ABCDE approach (Airway Breathing Circulation Disability Exposure). Obtaining vital signs is part of the secondary assessment not the primary survey which focuses on immediate life threats like airway bleeding and responsiveness.
Seven days ago, a 45-year-old female client had an ileostomy. She is self-sufficient and well otherwise. Which of the following long-term objectives would be unrealistic?
- A. She should be able to control evacuation of her bowels.
- B. She should be able to return to a regular diet.
- C. She should be able to resume sexual activity.
- D. She should be able to manage her own care.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Because of the location of an ileostomy, the client will not be able to control the evacuation of her bowels. The ileostomy will drain liquid stool continuously. The client should be able to return to a normal, well-balanced diet. She should avoid foods that cause diarrhea or excessive gas production, and she should eat small meals. The client should be able to resume sexual activity. She will be able to wear a pouch. The client has no other health or mental problems and should be able to manage her own ileostomy.
In assessing cardiovascular clients with progression of aortic stenosis, the nurse should be aware that there is typically:
- A. Decreased pulmonary blood flow and cyanosis
- B. Increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and pulmonary edema
- C. Systemic venous engorgement
- D. Increased left ventricular systolic pressures and hypertrophy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: These signs are seen in pulmonic stenosis or in response to pulmonary congestion and edema and mitral stenosis. These signs are seen primarily in mitral stenosis or as a late sign in aortic stenosis after left ventricular failure. These signs are seen primarily in right-sided heart valve dysfunction. Left ventricular hypertrophy occurs to increase muscle mass and overcome the stenosis; left ventricular pressures increase as left ventricular volume increases owing to insufficient emptying.