The nurse is caring for a client with a history of Addison’s disease. The nurse should expect the client to have:
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Addison’s disease causes adrenal insufficiency, reducing cortisol and aldosterone, leading to hypotension due to fluid and sodium loss.
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A client is taking Rifadin (rifampin) 600 mg PO daily for pulmonary tuberculosis. The nurse should tell the client to:
- A. Take the medication with juice
- B. Expect red discoloration of the urine
- C. Take the medication before going to bed at night
- D. Take the medication only if night sweats occur
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rifampin causes harmless red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears, which clients should be informed about to avoid alarm. It can be taken with or without food, timing is not restricted to bedtime, and it is taken daily, not conditionally.
A hyperactive client is experiencing flight of ideas. The most therapeutic activity for him would be:
- A. Doing crafts in occupational therapy
- B. Working a 1000-piece puzzle
- C. Playing bridge with three other clients
- D. Playing basketball in the gym
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This activity would allow the client to channel his energy in a positive way, suitable for his hyperactive state and limited attention span.
A client with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is receiving intravenous Pentam (pentamidine). While administering the medication, the nurse should give priority to checking the client's:
- A. Deep tendon reflexes
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Urine output
- D. Tissue turgor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pentamidine can cause hypotension, especially during IV administration, requiring close blood pressure monitoring. Reflexes, urine output, and turgor are less immediate concerns.
A young boy tells the nurse, 'I don't like my Dad to kiss or hug my Mom. I love my Mom and want to marry her.' The nurse recognizes this stage of growth and development as:
- A. Electra complex
- B. Oedipus complex
- C. Superego
- D. Ego
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Oedipus complex involves a young boy's erotic attachment to his mother and jealousy toward his father.
A female client plans to bottle-feed her newborn. Her physician has ordered bromocriptine (Parlodel) to suppress lactation. Which of the following instructions about bromocriptine should be given by the nurse?
- A. Bromocriptine stimulates the production of prolactin.
- B. Hypertension is a primary side effect.
- C. Bromocriptine is generally taken for 5 days.
- D. Her blood pressure must be stable before starting bromocriptine.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bromocriptine inhibits the secretion of prolactin. Hypotension is a side effect of this drug; hypertension is not. Bromocriptine is generally taken for 14 days. The administration of bromocriptine is delayed at least 4 hours postpartum and given only when the client's blood pressure is stable, because it can cause hypotension and syncope.
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